EMC E20-822 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-822
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
What is true of LUN 3?
A.Disk crossings are excessively high
B.Disk utilization is above the best practices threshold
C.The host data is misaligned
D.The number of stripe crossings indicates a large I/O size
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer uses Incremental SAN Copy (ISC) as part of a DR solution. They have configured the
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP). They are adapting their environment to support different failure scenarios.
Which combination of failures is most serious?
A.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the production LUN
B.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the remote LUN
C.A failure of the link followed by a failure of the remote RLP
D.A failure of the RLP on the remote CLARiiON followed by a failure of the remote LUN
Answer: A

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NO.4 A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with
MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a
150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain
about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A.Check the fibre for faults
B.Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C.Use Incremental SAN Copy
D.Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are using Replication Manager to make clones of two production Exchange mailbox database
LUNs. After reviewing the event log for the week, you notice there have been numerous failures but no
alerts have been sent out. Replication Manager was configured to send email alerts in case of an
Exchange job failure.
What is preventing the email alerts from being sent out?
A.MAPI32.DLL is missing on the Replication Manager server
B.Outlook was not installed on the Replication Manager server
C.The Replication Manager console was not configured to relay alerts
D.The SMTP service in IIS was not configured on the Replication Manager server
Answer: D

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NO.10 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer uses multiple server preparation scripts; one for new Exchange servers and one for recovery.
These scripts are used to configure the CLARiiON storage using the Navisphere Secure CLI. The
customer calls and reports that they accidentally ran the new server preparation script instead of the
recovery script they intended to run.
The customer asks for a check to see if their data is still available from CLARiiON storage as they cannot
find their LUNs. The CLARiiON SP event logs show the data in the exhibit. Which method can the
customer use to correct the problem?
A.Rebind base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
B.Reform the metaLUN from the original base and component LUNs, place the metaLUN in SG for the
host, and recover the data from the backup.
C.Use CLARiiON recovery tools to recover the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
D.Use Navisphere Secure CLI tools to recover base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, and
place the metaLUN in SG for the host.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A large financial customer has a time-critical OLTP application running on a dedicated CX3-80. One of
their internal administrators believes they modified something that could have affected the production
LUN. Since then the response time has increased significantly.
What action is the likely cause of the problem?
A.Decreased the high watermark to 75%
B.Enabled auto-assignment
C.Increased queue depth to 128
D.Increased the cache write aside value to 3076
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer has been tasked with copying 50 LUNs between two CLARiiONs using SAN Copy. The
customer starts the sessions selecting all defaults. The resulting copies appear to be taking an
unexpectedly long time.
Which settings should be increased to improve performance?
A.Reserved LUN Pool Size, Concurrent sessions
B.Throttle Value, Concurrent sessions
C.Throttle Value, Reserved LUN Pool Size
D.Write cache, Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer has a single RAID group with a RAID 1/0 6+6 LUN on a dedicated DAE2. This LUN is
active on SP A. They need to expand with the maximum possible increase in IOPS. The LUN may not go
offline. The customer has a new DAE2 with the same disks.
How should they proceed?
A.Add 12 disks to the current RAID group. Create a new LUN. Create a striped metaLUN.
B.Back up the current LUN. Create a new RAID group and a new LUN on SP B. Present it to the host and
create a LVM plaid. Restore the data.
C.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a concatenated metaLUN.
D.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a striped metaLUN.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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NO.17 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customer is reporting a problem with a physical disk. Examining the SP Event Log shows errors for
LUN 16. Data is being gathered from a UNIX host used for storage management. The host does not have
the capability to run the Navisphere Web UI.
To determine the underlying disk structure, which Navisphere Secure CLI subcommand can be used to
determine if LUN 16 is being affected?
A.getdisk
B.getinfo
C.getlun
D.getrg
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
A storage administrator is automating a solution using the Navisphere Secure CLI. In the event of
production data corruption, the script needs to recover from the target LUNs.
Which steps should the script perform?
P = Primary
S = Secondary
Snap = Snapshot
A.Unmount P, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
B.Unmount P, promote S, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
C.Unmount P, roll back Snap, promote S, fracture, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
D.Unmount P, roll back Snap, restore S, and mount P
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.21 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

EMC   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822

NO.23 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.24 A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for
the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing
rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level
management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage
object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON
storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A.Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object
managers.
B.Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
C.Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI
filter.
D.Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
A failure has occurred in a DR environment. The error message is displayed in the exhibit. What must be
done to correct the failure?
A.Add more LUNs to the remote CLARiiON RLP. Restart the synchronization.
B.Destroy the mirror. Add a secondary of the correct size.
C.Enable write cache on the remote CLARiiON Write Intent Logs. Restart the synchronization.
D.Increase the write cache size on the remote CLARiiON.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
You are the SAN Administrator at a company. The company is running multiple Exchange Server 2007
storage groups on a CLARiiON array that exclusively uses 15k rpm 146 GB drives. You have been tasked
with adding a third Exchange storage group with one mailbox store to the existing server.
The storage for this new Exchange storage group must be allocated from the same CLARiiON currently
running the other two Exchange storage groups. All Exchange storage groups are presently exhibiting a
1:1 read/write ratio. The new storage group will require capacity identical to the existing Exchange
storage groups.
The table below, as well as the exhibit, indicates the current utilization of the array.w`V6a2tYJ%&,*In
order to satisfy the capacity requirements (GB and IOPS), in which RAID group must you create a
database LUN for the new Exchange storage group?
A.0
B.10
C.20
D.30b
Answer: C

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NO.27 A customer is currently using Replication Manager to create clone copies of their SQL Server instance
which are then mounted to a backup server and streamed to tape. The customer has decided to purchase
a second CLARiiON and implement a DR scenario. The DR site is located 30 km away. A dedicated T1
(1.5 Mb) line is leased specifically for DR purposes with measured latencies that average 5-10 ms.
The application is considered mission-critical and as such very little data loss is acceptable. Any solution
implemented must have very little impact on performance. Time will be allowed for the application to be
recovered in the case of a disaster. The implemented solution must also allow for transaction logs to be
replayed in the case of data corruption.
Which DR solution would best fit this scenario?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RepliStor SQL Server Module
C.SQL Log Shipping/Full SAN Copy from the production LUN
D.SQL Log Shipping/Incremental SAN Copy from the production LUN
Answer: C

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.30 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-017
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 In the context of "establishing information availability," what is an operation management activity?
A. Capacity planning
B. Data classification
C. Testing
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A

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NO.2 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. SLAs have been established
between the business and IT that define normal hours of operations for service as 8 A.M. - 8 P.M.,
Monday through Friday.
What is the availability (percentage) of Component 1?
A. 78
B. 81.7
C. 89
D. 91.7
Answer: B

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NO.3 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components. Each component
must be functioning for the system to be operational.
What is the scheduled availability (percentage) for the system?
A. 84
B. 86
C. 88
D. 90
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company has a shared pre-staged infrastructure at an alternate site. This approach enables the
company to rebuild systems and applications in the event of a disaster.
What is the term for this strategy?
A. Hot site
B. Manual failover site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company's IT department is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain legacy
equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing equipment with a new one.
Option 1:
-Total operation costs = $400,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,250,000 -Recurring annual operation costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $100,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which option would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
D. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.6 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can seamless movement of data
between tiers of storage be found?
A. Automate
B. Create Copies
C. Distribute
D. Store
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company has estimated a cost of $240,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $35,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $2,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.8 The exhibit represents a Component Failure Impact Analysis (CFIA) for a company's IT infrastructure.
Several Requests for Change (RFC) were raised.
Which RFC should be considered a priority for implementation?
A. Deploying a switch architecture with no single point of failure
B. Clustering the backup server with multiple storage devices
C. Configuring the NAS device in an active-active mode
D. Adding more disk drives to the storage array
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $50,000 for the implementation charges.
Once the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $70,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 85%; Month 8
B. 85%; Month 9
C. 110%; Month 6
D. 110%; Month 8
Answer: C

EMC   E20-017   E20-017   E20-017

NO.10 The exhibit represents the expected financial results of a storage technology investment.
What does the ® ¯: represent?
A. Cost of investment equals the gain from the investment
B. Asset exceeds liability
C. Deployment cost crosses the planned deployment time
D. Return on investment
Answer: A

EMC   E20-017   E20-017 examen

NO.11 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can platform integrity be found?
A. Store
B. Automate
C. Create copies
D. Distribute
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $60,000 for the implementation charges. Once
the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $60,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 35%; Month 6
B. 35%; Month 7
C. 76%; Month 6
D. 76%; Month 7
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company has a system with three critical components as represented in the exhibit.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. Following an outage, certain
components seem to take longer to restore back to service than others.
What is the mean time to repair (MTTR) for Component 3?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: C

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NO.14 Based on strategic plans regarding green initiatives, an IT department is considering server
consolidation in its data centers.
Which set of elements should be included in the business value analysis to maximize the ROI for such an
initiative?
A. Asset utilization, recovery of stranded assets, and cost of floor space and power
B. Productivity of staff, response to business conditions, and utilization of storage
C. Asset utilization, backup costs, and need for availability
D. Cost of floor space and power, FTE-managed TB of storage, and reduction in SLA penalties
Answer: A

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NO.15 A company has estimated a cost of $220,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $30,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $1,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EVP-101
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 31 Q&As

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NO.1 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

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NO.3 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-895
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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NO.2 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.3 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.4 An existing EMC Avamar customer has noticed that garbage collection is not running properly on a
daily basis. The garbage collection logs show the process failing with the MSG_ERR_FULL error each
time it attempts to run. The Avamar Administrator reports the server capacity as 96%.What could be
causing garbage collection to fail?
A. GSAN capacity is over 85%
B. Operating system capacity is over 85%
C. Operating system capacity is over 65%
D. Avamar server has reached the health check limit
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has been performing full backups of their SharePoint farm to an Avamar server. They have
installed the Avamar SharePoint backup client without the GLR feature. They want to perform a restore of
only one web application, but do not want to take any of the SharePoint farm servers offline. What should
be done?
A. Install GLR onto a separate Windows client outside of the farm
B. Install GLR onto the application server to which the web application is to be recovered
C. Install GLR onto all servers of the SharePoint farm
D. Install GLR onto the web front-end server
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC customer has a three-node cluster with the Avamar Windows client installed. Each node has
the Avamar Exchange 2007 plug-in installed. What should be done to avoid backing up the same data
multiple times within a backup window?
A. Exclude virtual node file systems from the physical node dataset
B. Ensure the Quorum drive is backed up only once per week instead of nightly C. Ensure both the
physical and virtual nodes are in the same Avamar group
D. Verify that the Exchange database backup is not scheduled at the same time as the file system backup
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being written to a Data Domain system. The
Data Domain cleaning schedule runs at 8 A.M. on Tuesday mornings. Avamar maintenance runs daily at
6 A.M. A backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. The customer manually
deletes the backup on Wednesday afternoon using the Avamar Administrator.
When is the space reclaimed on the Data Domain system?
A. At the next Data Domain file system cleaning
B. Immediately on the Data Domain system
C. At the next scheduled Avamar garbage collection
D. When manually deleted from the Data Domain system
Answer: A

EMC   E20-895   E20-895   E20-895

NO.9 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.10 A new EMC Avamar customer wants help in setting up their backup groups and schedules. They are
migrating from a traditional tape backup solution with full backups performed once a week and
incrementals in between. They have a regulatory requirement to keep an annual backup for seven years
but want to keep all other backups for one month. Both Microsoft Windows and Linux clients will be
backed up. Based on best practices, what should be recommended?
A. Include all clients in the same group using one dataset and an advanced retention policy
B. Use a separate group for each operating system /retention combination
C. Enable the default group and use that group for all backups
D. Use one group for weekly backups and one for the other days of the week
Answer: A

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NO.11 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being directed to a Data Domain system. The
backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. From Avamar Administrator, the
customer manually deletes the backup.
When is the backup data deleted from the Data Domain system.?
A. Immediately on the Data Domain system
B. Manually deleted on the Data Domain system by the administrator
C. Next time the Avamar system runs garbage collection
D. Next time the Data Domain file system cleaning operation runs
Answer: C

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NO.12 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.14 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer has setup their EMC Celerra to backup through an Avamar NDMP Accelerator Node. They
are not seeing any increased performance since the initial backup. They have investigated the Celerra
and there are no outstanding issues.
What is a potential reason for the poor backup performance?
A. Dataset options are set to Level 0
B. Dataset advanced option is blank
C. Data has a high change rate
D. Dataset options are set to Level 1
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-007
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.2 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007

NO.3 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-007   E20-007

NO.6 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.7 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.8 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.9 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

EMC   E20-007   E20-007

NO.10 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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NO.14 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.15 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.18 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.19 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EC0-350
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical hacking and countermeasures)
Questions et réponses: 878 Q&As

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NO.1 Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability
assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What
protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports?
A.FTP
B.SMB
C.Finger
D.Samba
Correct:B

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NO.2 Clive is conducting a pen-test and has just port scanned a system on the network. He has
identified the operating system as Linux and been able to elicit responses from ports 23, 25 and
53. He infers port 23 as running Telnet service, port 25 as running SMTP service and port 53 as
running DNS service. The client confirms these findings and attests to the current availability of
the services. When he tries to telnet to port 23 or 25, he gets a blank screen in response. On
typing other commands, he sees only blank spaces or underscores symbols on the screen. What
are you most likely to infer from this?
A.The services are protected by TCP wrappers
B.There is a honeypot running on the scanned machine
C.An attacker has replaced the services with trojaned ones
D.This indicates that the telnet and SMTP server have crashed
Correct:A

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NO.3 A client has approached you with a penetration test requirement. They are concerned with the
possibility of external threat, and have invested considerable resources in protecting their
Internet exposure. However, their main concern is the possibility of an employee elevating his/her
privileges and gaining access to information outside of their department. What kind of penetration
test would you recommend that would best address the client's concern?
A.A Grey Hat test
B.A Grey Box test
C.A Black Hat test
D.A White Hat test
E.A Black Box test
F.A White Box test
Correct:B

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NO.4 Lori has just been tasked by her supervisor toonduct vulnerability scan on the corporate
network.She has been instructed to perform a very thorough test of the network to ensure that
there are no security holes on any of the machines.Lori's company does not own any commercial
scanning products, so she decides to download a free one off the Internet.Lori has never done a
vulnerability scan before, so she is unsure of some of the settings available in the software she
downloaded.One of the options is to choose which ports that can be scanned.Lori wants to do
exactly what her boss has told her, but she does not know what ports should be scanned. If Lori is
supposed to scan all known TCP ports, how many ports should she select in the software?
A.65536
B.1024
C.1025
D.Lori should not scan TCP ports, only UDP ports
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program from
buffer overflow attacks?
A.strcpy()
B.strcat()
C.streadd()
D.strsock()
Correct:A B C

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NO.6 Eric notices repeated probes to port 1080. He learns that the protocol being used is designed to
allow a host outside of a firewall to connect transparently and securely through the firewall. He
wonders if his firewall has been breached. What would be your inference?
A.Eric's network has been penetrated by a firewall breach
B.The attacker is using the ICMP protocol to have a covert channel
C.Eric has a Wingate package providing FTP redirection on his network
D.Somebody is using SOCKS on the network to communicate through the firewall
Correct:D

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NO.7 Bill has successfully executed a buffer overflow against a Windows IIS web server. He has been
able to spawn an interactive shell and plans to deface the main web page. He first attempts to use
the "Echo" command to simply overwrite index.html and remains unsuccessful. He then attempts
to delete the page and achieves no progress. Finally, he tries to overwrite it with another page in
which also he remains unsuccessful. What is the probable cause of Bill's problem?
A.The system is a honeypot
B.The HTML file has permissions of read only
C.You cannot use a buffer overflow to deface a web page
D.There is a problem with the shell and he needs to run the attack again
Correct:B

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NO.8 What type of port scan is shown below? Scan directed at open port: ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079 <----NO
RESPONSE------192.5.2.110:23 Scan directed at closed port: ClientServer 192.5.2.92:4079
---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079<-----RST/ACK----------192.5.2.110:23
A.Idle Scan
B.FIN Scan
C.XMAS Scan
D.Windows Scan
Correct:B

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NO.9 What file system vulnerability does the following command take advantage of? type
c:\anyfile.exe > c:\winnt\system32\calc.exe:anyfile.exe
A.HFS
B.ADS
C.NTFS
D.Backdoor access
Correct:B

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NO.10 Travis works primarily from home as a medical transcriptionist. He just bought a brand new
Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. He uses voice recognition software to help
him transfer what he dictates to electronic documents. The voice recognition software is
processor intensive, which is why he bought the new computer. Travis frequently has to get on
the Internet to do research on what he is working on. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Travis uses antivirus
software, anti-spyware software, and always keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Travis' computer is even more
noticeably slow. Every once in awhile, Travis also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen,
but they quickly disappear.He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on
the Internet. Travis is really worried about his computer because he spent a lot of money on it, and
he depends on it to work. Travis scans his computer with all kinds of software, and cannot find
anything out of the ordinary. Travis decides to go through Windows Explorer and check out the
file system, folder by folder, to see if there is anything he can find. He spends over four hours
pouring over the files and folders and cannot find anything.But, before he gives up, he notices
that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available.Since his hard drive is a 200 GB
hard drive, Travis thinks this is very odd. Travis downloads Space Monger and adds up the sizes
for all the folders and files on his computer. According to his calculations, he should have around
150 GB of free space. What is mostly likely the cause of Travis' problems?
A.Travis's computer is infected with stealth kernel level rootkit
B.Travis's computer is infected with Stealth Trojan Virus
C.Travis's computer is infected with Self-Replication Worm that fills the hard disk space
D.Logic Bomb is triggered at random times creating hidden data consuming junk files
Correct:A

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NO.11 What is the purpose of firewalking?
A.It's a technique used to map routers on a network link
B.It's a technique used to discover Wireless network on foot
C.It's a technique used to discover interface in promiscuous mode
D.It's a technique used to discover what rules are configured on a gateway
Correct:D

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NO.12 Samuel is the network administrator of DataX Communications, Inc. He is trying to configure his
firewall to block password brute force attempts on his network. He enables blocking the intruder's
IP address for a period of 24 hours time after more than three unsuccessful attempts. He is
confident that this rule will secure his network from hackers on the Internet. But he still receives
hundreds of thousands brute-force attempts generated from various IP addresses around the
world. After some investigation he realizes that the intruders are using a proxy somewhere else
on the Internet which has been scripted to enable the random usage of various proxies on each
request so as not to get caught by the firewall rule. Later he adds another rule to his firewall and
enables small sleep on the password attempt so that if the password is incorrect, it would take 45
seconds to return to the user to begin another attempt. Since an intruder may use multiple
machines to brute force the password, he also throttles the number of connections that will be
prepared to accept from a particular IP address. This action will slow the intruder's attempts.
Samuel wants to completely block hackers brute force attempts on his network. What are the
alternatives to defending against possible brute-force password attacks on his site?
A.Enforce a password policy and use account lockouts after three wrong logon attempts even though this
might lock out legit users
B.Enable the IDS to monitor the intrusion attempts and alert you by e-mail about the IP address of the
intruder so that you can block them at the Firewall manually
C.Enforce complex password policy on your network so that passwords are more difficult to brute force
D.You cannot completely block the intruders attempt if they constantly switch proxies
Correct:D

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NO.13 Bill has started to notice some slowness on his network when trying to update his company's
website and while trying to access the website from the Internet. Bill asks the help desk manager
if he has received any calls about slowness from the end users, but the help desk manager says
that he has not. Bill receives a number of calls from customers that cannot access the company
website and cannot purchase anything online. Bill logs on to a couple of his routers and notices
that the logs show network traffic is at an all time high.?He also notices that almost all the traffic
is originating from a specific address. Bill decides to use Geotrace to find out where the suspect
IP is originates from. The Geotrace utility runs a traceroute and finds that the IP is coming from
Panama.?Bill knows that none of his customers are in Panama so he immediately thinks that his
company is under a Denial of Service attack. Now Bill needs to find out more about the originating
IP address. What Internet registry should Bill look in to find the IP address?
A.LACNIC
B.ARIN
C.RIPE LACNIC
D.APNIC
Correct:A

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NO.14 A program that defends against a port scanner will attempt to:
A.Sends back bogus data to the port scanner
B.Log a violation and recommend use of security-auditing tools
C.Limit access by the scanning system to publicly available ports only
D.Update a firewall rule in real time to prevent the port scan from being completed
Correct:D

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NO.15 Why is Social Engineering considered attractive by hackers and commonly done by experts in
the field?
A.It is not considered illegal
B.It is done by well-known hackers
C.It is easy and extremely effective to gain information
D.It does not require a computer in order to commit a crime
Correct:C

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NO.16 After a client sends a connection request (SYN) packet to the server, the server will respond
(SYN-ACK) with a sequence number of its choosing, which then must be acknowledged (ACK) by
the client. This sequence number is predictable; the attack connects to a service first with its own
IP address, records the sequence number chosen, and then opens a second connection from a
forged IP address. The attack doesn't see the SYN-ACK (or any other packet) from the server, but
can guess the correct responses. If the source IP address is used for authentication, then the
attacker can use the one-sided communication to break into the server. What attacks can you
successfully launch against a server using the above technique?
A.Session Hijacking attacks
B.Denial of Service attacks
C.Web page defacement attacks
D.IP spoofing attacks
Correct:A

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NO.17 Maurine is working as a security consultant for Hinklemeir Associates.She has asked the
Systems Administrator to create a group policy that would not allow null sessions on the network.
The Systems Administrator is fresh out of college and has never heard of null sessions and does
not know what they are used for. Maurine is trying to explain to the Systems Administrator that
hackers will try to create a null session when footprinting the network. Why would an attacker try
to create a null session with a computer on a network?
A.Enumerate users and shares
B.Install a backdoor for later attacks
C.Escalate his/her privileges on the target server
D.To create a user with administrative privileges for later use
Correct:A

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NO.18 Mark works as a contractor for the Department of Defense and is in charge of network security.
He has spent the last month securing access to his network from all possible entry points. He has
segmented his network into several subnets and has installed firewalls all over the network. He
has placed very stringent rules on all the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports
that must be used. He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that
must be accessed from the Internet. Mark is fairly confident of his perimeter defenses, but is still
worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels. How
should mark protect his network from an attacker using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A.Block ICMP type 13 messages
B.Block all incoming traffic on port 53
C.Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D.Use stateful inspection on the firewalls
Correct:A

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NO.19 Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of 'underground' sites.
Bob is willing to share his knowledge to those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed
their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has risks associated with it, as the
same knowledge can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the
most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the "black" hats or crackers and the
"white" hats or computer security professionals?
A.Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks
B.Educate everyone with books, articles and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities and safeguards
C.Train more national guard and reservist in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency
or crises
D.Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more
individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life
Correct:B

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NO.20 Which programming language is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks?
A.Java
B.ActiveX
C.C++
D.Assembly Language
Correct:A

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Dernières IBM A2040-406 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A2040-406
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Clive is using an IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 client and needs to access a database that has been
saved with the latest ODS revision. Can he do this?
A. Yes, as long as the file is stored locally.
B. No, ODS revisions are not backward compatible.
C. Yes, as long as the file is retrieved via an IBM Domino server and not locally.
D. Yes, ODS revisions are backward compatible regardless of where the file is retrieved from.
Answer: C

IBM   A2040-406   A2040-406   A2040-406   A2040-406

NO.2 Mitchell wishes to disable transaction logging for a particular database on a server with
transaction logging enabled. However, he cannot see the Advanced Database Properties to do so.
What is the cause of this?
A. He is not in the "Administrators" field on the server document.
B. He cannot selectively turn off transaction logging for individual databases.
C. Transaction logging can only be disabled per document, not for an entire database.
D. He must add the notes.ini parameter to the server: DisableTransLog=[name of database].
Answer: A

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NO.3 When a user tries to access a database on a server that is unavailable, IBM Domino will
attempt to redirect the user to a replica of the database on another server in the cluster. Which
Domino server task determines the availability on each cluster server?
A. Server Balancer
B. Cluster Manager
C. Failover Manager
D. Workload Balancer
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator wants to install an IBM Domino server on multiple machines with no user
intervention. How can this be achieved?
A. Make use of the Domino silent install.
B. Run the Domino server install from a command prompt.
C. Run the Domino installation multiple times from each machine.
D. Install the Domino server on one machine and then copy the files to the remaining machines.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Craig administers two IBM Domino servers: DomServerA and DomServerB. He's recently had
to change the hostname of DomServerB, and since then DomServerA is no longer able to connect to
it. What is a likely explanation for this?
A. The hostname cache on DomServerA needs to be flushed.
B. DomServerA needs to be restarted in order to see DomServerB's new hostname.
C. DomServerA needs the hostname of DomServerB changed in its Connection document.
D. DomServerB needs the hostname of DomServerA changed in its Connection document.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which hidden view in the Domain Catalog can an administrator use to find which databases
are included in the domain index?
A. $MultiDbIndex
B. $DbCategories
C. $DocumentContent
D. $DomainRepository
Answer: A

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NO.7 Once a Directory Assistance database is created and replicated to a server, what must be done
before the database can be utilized by the server?
A. The LDAP task must be restarted.
B. The Administration Process must be invoked.
C. The Extended Directory Catalog configuration document must be updated.
D. The Server document must be updated and the IBM Domino server must be restarted.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which file type must be made available via HTTP to deploy a self-signed SSL certificate to
IBM Lotus Notes Traveler users?
A. .cer
B. .key
C. .ssl
D. .ver
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is true for the IBM Notes 9.0 Basic client?
A. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows only.
B. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Mac only.
C. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Linux only.
D. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows, Mac, and Linux.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the minimum level of access required for a user to create a full-text index on a single
database?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Designer
D. Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.11 What can a user do from the Discover Page?
A. Search her mail file for information she would like to find.
B. Search her entire desktop for information she would like to find.
C. See e-mails, posts, and other data that she may find interesting based on the integrated analytics
engine.
D. See information about new features, get helpful hints on using IBM Notes, and quickly access her
Notes applications.
Answer: D

IBM   A2040-406   A2040-406 examen

NO.12 What type of Web Site rule can be used to provide user-friendly aliases for complex URLs?
A. Rewrite
B. Directory
C. Redirection
D. Substitution
Answer: D

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NO.13 What template must be used when creating secondary address books for use by Directory
Assistance?
A. da.ntf
B. dircat.ntf
C. names.ntf
D. pubnames.ntf
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification A2040-406   A2040-406

NO.14 Kaitlin has had DAOS running for a few months on her server, but now wishes to change where
the files are stored. How can she do this?
A. This is not possible. Once the DAOS service is configured the location of the repository cannot be
moved.
B. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Restart the server.
The files will automatically be copied to the new location.
C. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Stop the server.
Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level. Restart the
server.
D. Stop the server. Create a linked folder in the current DAOS repository location pointing at the new
destination. Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level.
Restart the server.
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification A2040-406   A2040-406   A2040-406   certification A2040-406

NO.15 Katie has set up a Resource Reservations database and would like to allow certain users to
create resource documents. How should she do this?
A. No further action is required. All users can create resources by default.
B. List the users' names in the access control list (ACL) of the Resource Reservations database.
C. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[ResourceAdmin] role.
D. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[CreateResource] role.
Answer: D

IBM   A2040-406   certification A2040-406   A2040-406

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