Meilleur EMC E20-016 E10-110 E20-080 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E10-110
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Enterprise Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 278 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-080
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about full-text activation in D2?
A. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and Documentum xPlore should be used
simultaneously.
B. Activation of full-text search capabilities using Documentum xPlore and OpenSearch requires an
external search engine installation.
C. Activation of full-text search capabilities using DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch requires an external
search engine installation.
D. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch should be used
simultaneously.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is created by the Content Server as a result of the copy operation?
A. A relation object to the original document being copied
B. A relation object to the original document being copied with a link to the original content
C. A new document object and a copy of the original content
D. A new document object and link to the original content
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true when a checkin operation is performed by the Content Server?
A. The Lock Owner property must match the user name performing the operation before the Lock
Owner property is cleared out.
B. The Lock Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
C. The Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
D. The Last Access Date property is set to the current date and time.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding functionality in D2 version 4.0 and later?
A. Full-text search results include relevance.
B. Google syntax is no longer supported for simple and advanced searches.
C. Boolean syntax is only supported in advanced searches.
D. The default setting for simple search is 5 results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What implements subscriptions to document objects?
A. Client Application
B. BAM Server
C. Content Server
D. xPlore Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using a Documentum web application, which components are required for accessing a
repository?
A. Application Server, Content Server
B. BOCS, Application Server
C. ACS, Content Server
D. Rendering Server, Content Server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding a document object with renditions?
A. Renditions are generated for each version of a document.
B. Renditions are generated for only new versions of a document.
C. Renditions are generated only from the original content.
D. Renditions cannot have images embedded.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is required to enable editing of a document in the repository?
A. The document must be checked out.
B. The document must use an appropriate permission set with Edit (Write) permission.
C. The document must be owned by the user performing the edit.
D. The user must not be editing other documents.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-610
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.2 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

NO.7 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.9 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.11 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

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NO.12 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.14 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.17 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.20 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-538
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a minimum requirement when creating a file system using Manual Volume Management?
A. Metavolume
B. Mirror volume
C. Sliced volumes
D. Striped volumes
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system administrator is trying to create a non-root file system of type UxFS, on a metavolume. What is
the minimum size to create the file system?
A. 4 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 2 GB
D. 2 MB
Answer: D

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NO.5 A site administrator needs to disable user and group quotas. What happens to the existing quota
configuration and metadata?
A. Maintained
B. Enforced
C. Deleted
D. Reset
Answer: A

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NO.6 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are running out of capacity on your Celerra, and additional storage is already on order. Meanwhile,
which quota configuration would track user consumption?
A. User quotas on the file system
B. Group quotas on the tree
C. Tree quotas on the file system
D. User quotas on the tree
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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NO.10 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are creating an auto-extend file system. What would happen if you leave the Maximum Capacity
option empty?
A. File system would grow to the pool capacity limit.
B. Data would be overwritten.
C. File system would fail to auto-extend.
D. Write I/Os would be saved in cache until more space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which command would successfully extend a Data Mover root file system?
A. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
B. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
C. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2K pool=clar_r5_performance
D. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
Answer: A

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NO.14 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which conditions must be met before tree quotas can be enabled?
A. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must already exist.
B. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must not exist.
C. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be populated with data.
D. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be at the root of the file system.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-495
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which core xCP component is responsible for aggregating business process reporting information?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. Business Activity Monitor
C. Process Engine
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Answer: B

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NO.2 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.3 A manual activity has a Pre-Timer defined to send an email notification.
Which task condition for the activity will trigger the email notification?
A. The task is not completed within the specified time after the workflow starts.
B. The task is not completed within the specified time once the activity is created.
C. The task is not created within the specified time after the completion of the previous activity.
D. The task is not created within the specified time after the workflow starts.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can an application developer enable tracing for Composer to monitor building or importing a
project?
A. dfc.properties
B. log4j.properties
C. Eclipse preferences
D. composer.properties
Answer: C

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NO.5 A medical supply company has a product approval workflow where the unique product ID must be
exposed to TaskSpace users in the task list template.
What is the EMC best practice for exposing the ID in the task list template?
A. Customize the query that populates the task list template.
B. Put the product ID into a structured data type.
C. Customize the task list template using the WDK XML configuration.
D. Mark the package data as reportable for BAM.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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NO.9 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

EMC   E20-495   E20-495

NO.10 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.11 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.12 Case workers access a TaskSpace Task List component in order to determine the most important
tasks to work on each day. Workers will filter their task list by two required data fields: Request_date:
DATE
Income: FLOAT
A value in both fields is required in order to sufficiently minimize the number of cases shown in the case
worker's task list.
How must request_date and income be defined to minimize the response time for the task list display?
A. as simple process variables
B. within separate structured data types
C. within the same structured data type
D. as attributes within package data
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which component is responsible for executing outbound data/messaging activity templates from the
Process Integrator?
A. Business Process Server
B. SMTP Server
C. Content Server
D. Java Method Server
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is part of the xCP runtime architecture?
A. Process Integrator
B. Process Reporting Services
C. Process Builder
D. TaskSpace Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.16 A manual activity is designed with performer setting as All users in a group.
Which statement represents the server behavior?
A. A work item is generated for each user in the group and an inbox item is also generated for each user
in the group.
B. A work item is generated for each user in the group but no inbox item is generated.
C. A work item is generated for each user in the group, but only one inbox item is generated for the entire
group.
D. One work item is generated for the entire group and an inbox item is generated for each user in the
group.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Where are exceptions from Inbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm-runtime.log
B. bps.log
C. documentum.log
D. server.log
Answer: B

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NO.19 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E22-186
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 A Microsoft SharePoint customer's database is running out of space due to excessive content.
What can EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint provide to help the customer.?
A. database compression
B. consolidated user interface
C. dual search mechanisms
D. storage management
Answer: D

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NO.2 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.3 When performing an archive search from within SharePoint, what does the Owner List contain?
A. a list of documents the user owns and can access
B. the list of Mapped folders that the user is attempting to access
C. a list of the current user's SharePoint and Active Directory groups
D. the SourceOne Access Account information and the user's current logon information
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.5 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint search feature can end users and administrators use
to find archived SharePoint content?
A. SharePoint Advanced Search
B. SharePoint Archive Search
C. SourceOne Discovery Manager
D. SourceOne Web Search
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.8 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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NO.9 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator is adding a SharePoint Farm server and needs to impersonate a user with these
details:
User name = uname
Domain = corp
Which format is valid for impersonating this user?
A. corp/uname
B. uname.corp
C. uname-corp
D. uname@corp
Answer: D

EMC   certification E22-186   E22-186

NO.11 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

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NO.13 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which mechanism is used by External BLOB Storage to externalize content into the SourceOne
Archive?
A. Server Message Block
B. WCF with HTTP binding
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. WebDAV
Answer: C

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NO.15 An archived SharePoint site with permissions exclusively assigned via a custom site-specific group is
deleted. What is the accessibility of the archived content?
A. accessible only by a user with the Administrator role on the Mapped folder
B. accessible only by the Farm Administrator
C. accessible by a user with the Administrator role on the Native Archive folder
D. accessible only after an archive permission update task is run
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine?
A. a SourceOne activity
B. a SharePoint task
C. a Database stored procedure
D. a SourceOne service
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the preferred mechanism for SharePoint permission assignment for use with EMC SourceOne
for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. SourceOne Security group
B. Active Directory group
C. Active Directory users
D. Local users
Answer: B

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NO.20 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-002
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Cloud Infrastructure and Services Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is a benefit of server clustering?
A. High CPU utilization
B. High availability
C. High memory utilization
D. High security
Answer: B

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NO.3 As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the
organization would be expected to grow larger?
A. Power and energy
B. Management
C. Infrastructure
D. Operational
Answer: D

EMC   E20-002   E20-002

NO.4 Which is used to logically group FC ports?
A. Zone
B. VLAN
C. Mask
D. ISL
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
Answer: A

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NO.6 What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy.?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
D. Virtualization-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.9 An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance
has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their
problem.
Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in
proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A

EMC   E20-002   E20-002   E20-002

NO.12 Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
A. Area ID
B. Port ID
C. Domain ID
D. WWN
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-880
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 As a result of suffering a catastrophic failure, your customer has requested a DR solution. The solution
must introduce a higher level of availability for their Exchange 2010 system. You have recommended a
strategy that involves Replication Manager with native DAG.
In what state(s) of the database would the replication occur?
A. Either active or passive
B. Active only
C. Passive only
D. Neither active nor passive
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has a VNX system to provide storage for a VMware Cluster with five ESX hosts. Each ESX
host has one dual-port FC HBA connected to two FC switches. They are using VMware native failover
functionality for high availability and load-balancing.
The customer requires higher availability for the ESX host connectivity to the storage system.
What would you recommend to the customer?
A. Use dual HBAs with dual ports on each ESX host.
B. Use a host-based load balancing solution.
C. Use high quality stackable FC switches.
D. Current configuration ensures the best availability.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.4 A SQL Data Warehouse database is replicating between two VNX storage systems with Incremental
San Copy. The production database is on 15, 15k rpm SAS drives and the Reserved LUN Pool uses five
NL-SAS drives. The database is continuously updated locally and replicated once a day to maximize the
benefits of write folding. Replication takes place from 6 PM until 10 PM. At 6 PM the storage administrator
notices an increase in response time of the application, which steadily improves until 10 PM.
What should be done to improve performance during replication without affecting recovery data
granularity?
A. Put the Reserve LUN Pool on a similar disk and RAID type as the source volume.
B. Create a clone of the source volume and replicate the clone.
C. Expand the number of drives in the source volume to accommodate the increased I/O from the
replication session.
D. Adjust the San Copy throttle to minimize the impact to the production application.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company has added a large number of users to a VMware VDI deployment. The users are
complaining that the system (VNX-Block) is slow, especially when they start their shift. You have been
tasked to provide an economical solution.
Which technology would you use to improve performance?
A. FAST Cache
B. FAST VP
C. FAST
D. Fast VPN
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.7 A VNX storage system is being configured to provide storage for an Exchange 2010 implementation for
2,000 users. Performance and reliability are more important than cost for the customer.
What RAID configuration should be used?
A. A RAID 1/0 Group, spread across two DAEs on two separate storage system busses
B. Two RAID 5 Groups in a striped metaLUN across two DAEs, one from each back end bus
C. A RAID 1/0 Group on a single DAE
D. A RAID 6 Group which can accommodate two simultaneous drive failures
Answer: A

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NO.8 A client has asked for assistance with designing his Exchange environment. The environment today is
fully virtualized and Exchange will be as well. The client is concerned about local recovery and has
decided to make VMware snapshots of their VMFS File system housing Exchange. The VMware servers
are all attached through fiber to a VNX.
What volume type is required to meet the customer's protection needs?
A. Virtual Mode RDMs
B. Physical Mode RDMs
C. VMFS
D. Dedicated RAID Group LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.17 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

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NO.1 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.2 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.4 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.6 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.9 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.10 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.11 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.12 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

EMC   E20-361   E20-361   E20-361

NO.13 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.14 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.15 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.16 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.17 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.18 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.19 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.20 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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