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Code d'Examen: 640-816
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2)
Questions et réponses: 222 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output of the R1# show ip route command and the information presented in the graphic,
which of the following is a potential routing problem?
A. the use of summarization for discontiguous networks
B. the use of CIDR with a routing protocol that does not support it
C. the use of VLSM with a routing protocol that does not support it
D. the use of the no auto-summary command with a protocol that does not support summarization
E. the use of the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command with a routing protocol that does not support it
Answer: A

Cisco   640-816   certification 640-816   640-816

NO.3 The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same
encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

certification Cisco   certification 640-816   640-816

NO.5 A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another
department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup
configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various
connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE

Cisco   640-816   640-816 examen   640-816

NO.7 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco
switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.8 The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP.
Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received
on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. show ip protocols
B. show ip route rip
C. show interfaces
D. debug rip routing
E. debug ip rip
Answer: AE

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NO.10 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: BE

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NO.11 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B

Cisco   640-816   certification 640-816   640-816

NO.13 The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the
graphic.
There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of
examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the
default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF

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NO.14 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch
reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed
locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision
number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent
mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP
servers.
Answer: CF

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NO.15 What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Answer: ACF

Cisco   certification 640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.16 Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D

Cisco   640-816   640-816

NO.17 A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of
this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C

Cisco examen   640-816 examen   640-816

NO.18 How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: D

Cisco examen   certification 640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 350-029
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE SP Written Exam)
Questions et réponses: 382 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS- 1 system?
A. one route processor (RP) Card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. one distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. one line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. one route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. one line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification?
(Choose three)
A. switched virtual circuit
B. virtual circuit status
C. simple flow control
D. multicasting
E. permanent virtual circuit
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which two models are the models of DiffServ-Aware Traffic Engineering? (Choose two)
A. Policy-based Model
B. Class based Model
C. Russian Doll Model
D. Global Tunnel Model
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which statement about standard STS-1 SONET framing is true?
A. 8 rows by 64 bytes
B. 6 rows by 64 bytes
C. 10 rows by 96 bytes
D. 8 rows by 128 bytes
E. 9 rows by 90 bytes
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which three of these can be a forwarding equivalence class? (Choose three)
A. IPsec tunnel
B. routing equivalence paths
C. traffic engineering tunnel
D. bridge or switch instance
E. groups of IP addresses
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 In the Carrier Support Carrier (CsC) feature, which two protocols run CSC-PE and CSC-CS (Choose
two)
A. EBGPv4 with a sending community
B. IGP and LDP
C. EBGPv4 with a sending label
D. IGP and EBGPv4
E. IGP and RSVP
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which type of AAL does ATM utilize to deliver CBR traffic?
A. AAL2
B. AAL 4
C. AL 5
D. AAL 1
E. AAL 3
Answer: D

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit
Which Cisco IOS feature does this algorithm illustrate?
A. OSPF exponential back-off
B. IP event dampening
C. partial SPF
D. EIGRP DUAL
E. the Cisco MPLS traffic engineering path recalculation
Answer: B

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NO.9 In the Carrier Supporting Carrier (CsC) feature, which two protocols run between CSC-PE and
CSC-CE (Choose two)
A. IGP and RSVP
B. EBGPv4 with a sending community
C. IGP and EBGPv4
D. IGP and LDP
E. EBGPv4 with a sending label
Answer: D,E

Cisco   certification 350-029   350-029

NO.10 When an MPLS Layer 2 VPN runs in the hub-and-spoke model, where is QoS implemented?
A. hub and spoke
B. PE
C. CE
D. hub
E. spoke
Answer: D

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit
If the SP network is configuring Remotely Triggered Black Hole filtering to protect hosts on the
152.68.19.0/24 network, which router should be configured as the black hole activating router?
A. F
B. C
C. D
D. L
E. A
F. K
Answer: A

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NO.12 How many bits does EXP occupy in the MPLS label header?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
E. 2
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements about 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. 10 Gigabit Ethernet does not support VLAN definition
B. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports full duplex links, but does not support half duplex links.
C. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports unshielded or shielded twisted-pair cable connections
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).
E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports optical fiber connections in single mode only. Mufti mode is not
supported.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit
Which IPv6 deployment feature is displayed?
A. MPLS 6PE
B. MPLS 6VPE
C. 6 to 4 Replay Service
D. native IPv6 over MPLS
E. 6 to 4 Tunnel
Answer: B

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NO.15 All secure domain routers (SDRs) have shared attribute and resources. Which three resources are
shared all SDRs? (Choose three)
A. privilege-level configuration
B. fabric cards
C. SNMP traps
D. admin- level configuration
E. exec- level configuration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which statement about VPLS is true?
A. All CE devices emulate a bridge
B. All provider devices emulate a bridge
C. Hierarchical VPLS reduces signaling overhead
D. Each PE device emulates a bridge
E. Each CE device emulates a bridge
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payfoad packet?
A. UOP port 50
B. IP protocol 51
C. TCP port 51
D. TCP port 50
E. IP protocol 50
F. UDP port51
Answer: E

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NO.18 You are about to design a very fast convergence time on a service provider network. Which feature
would you utilize to declare a link failure within less than two seconds of the fault on a link?
A. fast convergence SFP
B. MTU discovery
C. redundancy links
D. keepalive
E. carrier delay
Answer: E

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NO.19 What is the encapsulation format of an MPLS Multicast VPN (MVPN) packer.?
A. IP unicast in IP unicast
B. IP multicast in IP anycast
C. IP anycast in IP anycast
D. IP multicast in IP unicast
E. IP multicast in IP multicast
F. IP unicast in IP multicast
Answer: E

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NO.20 What is the default BGP scanner time?
A. 10 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 120 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 30 minutes
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 650-393
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three of these service components are in the design phase.?
(Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following:
A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staff Training
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
F. Site Readiness Assessment
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Which prepare phase service component involves providing a customer with a financial justification for
adopting a technology? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Technology Strategy Development
B. High-Level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Proof of Concept
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three best describe the partner benefits of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? (Choose
three.)
A. Improve customer satisfaction rates
B. Improve the skill sets of their staff members
C. Increase their staff productivity
D. Reduce the risk involved with deploying and supporting new and complex technologies
E. Improve response times for network outages
F. Help ensure that suppliers are meeting metrics
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 642-544
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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642-544 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/642-544.html

NO.1 To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which
log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS server?
A.pnLog agent
B.Cisco Security MARS agent
C.SNARE
D.None. Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device.
Correct:C

certification Cisco   642-544 examen   certification 642-544   642-544

NO.2 Drop
Correct:
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4

certification Cisco   642-544 examen   certification 642-544   642-544

NO.3 Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by
either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database?
A.creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
B.creating drop rules
C.inactivating the rules
D.inactivating the events
E.deleting the false-positive events from the Incidents page
F.deleting the false-positive events from the Event Management page
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-544 examen   certification 642-544   642-544

NO.4 A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway.
Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which
additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
B.use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
C.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
D.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-544 examen   certification 642-544   642-544

NO.5 Refering to the rule shown on the MARS GUI screen, which two of the following statements are
correct?(Choose two.)
A.This rule will fire if the offset 1 condition occurs "OR" if the offset 2 condition occurs.
B.This rule will fire if the offset 3 condition occurs.
C.The expressions between cells are "AND' while the expressions between items in the same cell are
"OR".
D.This is a user-defined rule.
E.This rule can be deleted after changing its status to "inactive."
Correct:B C

certification Cisco   642-544 examen   certification 642-544   642-544

Dans cette époque glorieuse, l'industrie IT est devenue bien intense. C'est raisonnable que le test Cisco 642-544 soit un des tests plus populaires. Il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer ce test, et la réussite de test Cisco 642-544 est le rêve pour les professionnels ambitieux.

Cisco meilleur examen 352-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 352-001
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (ADVDESIGN)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

352-001 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/352-001.html

NO.1 You are the Cisco Network Designer in s.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN?
(Choose two.)
A.NICs are used for network connectivity.
B.Servers request specific blocks of data.
C.Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D.A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer:B D

Cisco   352-001 examen   352-001

NO.2 Which three types of LSA could each trigger a partial SPF? (Choose three.)
A.type 2 LSA (Network Link Advertisements)
B.type 3 LSA (ABR Summary Link Advertisements)
C.type 4 LSA (ASBR Summary Link Advertisements)
D.type 5 LSA (Autonomous System External Link Advertisements)
Answer:B C D

Cisco   352-001   certification 352-001   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.3 What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack?
A.source of the attack
B.type of attack
C.target of the attack
D.priority of the attack traffic
Answer:B

Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001

NO.4 Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two.)
A.to improve optimal routing within the network
B.to reduce the impact of topology changes
C.to reduce the amount of information any specific router within the network must store and process
D.to isolate the impact of DDoS attacks
Answer:B C

Cisco examen   352-001   certification 352-001   352-001

NO.5 What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised
from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A.It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B.It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C.It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D.It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer:C

Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001 examen

NO.6 You are a network technician for the Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network
are equal cost, and -R1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route
are displayed on the diagram. Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?
A.Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the -R4- -R3 link.
B.-R1 will not use -R4 and -R3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path.
C.Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router -R1.
D.Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router -R3.
Answer:A

Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001 examen

NO.7 How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.5
Answer:B

Cisco   352-001   352-001   352-001   352-001

NO.8 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All
packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted
packets). What is the maximum number of queries -R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link
between -R1 and -R2 fails?
A.four queries, one each from -R2, -R4, -R5, and -R6
B.no queries, because there aren't any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24
C.seven queries, one from -R2 and two each from -R4, -R5, and -R6
D.one query, since the remote routers -R4, -R5, and -R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP
Answer:A

certification Cisco   352-001 examen   certification 352-001   352-001

NO.9 You are a network technician for the company, study the exhibit carefully. -R1 is redistributing
10.1.5.0/24 into Area 1 in this network. Which LSA containing 10.1.5.0/24 will -R6 have in its database?
A.-R6 will have a border router (type 4) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24.
B.-R6 will have an NSSA external (type 7) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24.
C.-R6 will have an external (type 5) LSA for 10.1.5.0/24 in its local database.
D.-R6 will not have any LSAs containing 10.1.5.0/24.
Answer:D

Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001 examen   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.10 The company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites
needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a
concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information
injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A.Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a
neighbor.
B.Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C.Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D.Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF
point-to-point.
Answer:B

certification Cisco   352-001   352-001   certification 352-001   352-001   352-001

NO.11 In this network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all
interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the
topology table at router -RC, only one path can be seen towards 10.1.1.0/24. Which description is correct?
A.Router -RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to router -RC due to a split horizon
B.EIGRP should advertise all available paths to 10.1.1.0/24 in the local topology table to all neighbors so
this condition is a bug
C.Router -RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router -RC due to a split horizon
D.Router -RC should have two paths to 10.1.1.0/24, while routers -RB and -RD should each have only
one path, indicating a route filter has been applied on Router -RC
Answer:C

Cisco examen   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.12 Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least
disruption of service when making topology changes?
A.dynamic reconfiguration
B.path MTU discovery
C.auto setup
D.remote management
Answer:A

Cisco   352-001   352-001 examen   352-001

NO.13 Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be
originated by this router?
A.one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B.six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing
information
C.two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D.three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external
routing information
Answer:A

certification Cisco   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.14 You are the Cisco Network Designer in s.com. Which two settings must be configured in order to use
the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A.QoS must be set to Silver
B.WMM must be enabled
C.QoS must be set to Gold
D.QoS must be set to Platinum
Answer:B D

Cisco   352-001 examen   certification 352-001

NO.15 The company is planning to deploy a new multicast application in its network to do real-time trading.
This application will be performed simultaneously by thousands of traders located throughout the network,
each a source of several IP multicast streams, to carry the "sell" and "buy" trading bids. All routers in its
network have full hardware support for all PIM multicast modes. Which mode can be used to minimize the
impact of the new application on the routers in the network?
A.PIM Source Specific Multicast
B.PIM Any-Source Multicast
C.PIM Dense Mode
D.PIM Bidirectional
Answer:D

Cisco   352-001   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.16 According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at -R4. Which path will
the traffic take from here?
A.It will take -R2.
B.It will not take any path. -R4 will drop the traffic.
C.It will take -R3.
D.It will load share between -R2 and -R3.
Answer:A

Cisco examen   352-001 examen   352-001   352-001   352-001   certification 352-001

NO.17 NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and
traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A.monitor configuration changes
B.monitor CPU utilization
C.monitor link utilization
D.generate traps for failure conditions
Answer:C

Cisco   352-001   352-001 examen   352-001

NO.18 You are the Cisco Network Designer in s.com. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and
logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which
access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A.Layer 2 mode
B.Layer 2 Edge mode
C.Layer 3 mode
D.Layer 3 In-Band mode
Answer:A

certification Cisco   352-001   certification 352-001

NO.19 Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network?
(Choose two.)
A.to increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree
B.to aggregate reachability information
C.to provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
D.to segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
Answer:B D

Cisco examen   352-001 examen   352-001   352-001

NO.20 All routers in this network are running EIGRP according to the exhibit. Which step is the most important
to make sure that this network core will converge quickly should a link failure occur?
A.make certain the maximum number of paths on both of the routers is two
B.make certain EIGRP is not running across non-transit links
C.add another link between the two routers with no servers and set the metric on this new link equal to the
other four links
D.make certain EIGRP is running across all links
Answer:B

certification Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001 examen

NO.21 Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission
control within existing H.323 environments?
A.single site with centralized call processing
B.single site with distributed call processing
C.multisite with centralized call processing
D.multisite with distributed call processing
Answer:D

certification Cisco   352-001   352-001 examen

NO.22 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all
interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the
topology table at Router -RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router -RC only has one
path in its topology table?
A.Router -RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router -RC due to split horizon.
B.Router -RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router -RC because Router -RC is its feasible successor.
C.Router -RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router -RC due to split horizon.
D.Router -RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router -RC because Router -RC is its feasible successor.
Answer:C

certification Cisco   352-001   352-001 examen   352-001

NO.23 Which way can most effectively improve BGP convergence in the event that a point-to-point link, over
which an EBGP session is running, fails?
A.use BGP multihop
B.configure EBGP fast external fallover
C.enable BGP graceful restart
D.reduce the keepalive timer to the minimum value allowed
Answer:B

Cisco   352-001   352-001   352-001

NO.24 The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP
connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A.It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B.It will be removed from the BGP table.
C.It will be considered a valid route.
D.It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer:C

Cisco   352-001 examen   352-001   352-001

NO.25 Configure routers -RE and -RF as route reflectors of router -RA in this network presented in the
following exhibit. When router -RC transmits a route to router -RA, which router or routers will router -RA
send an update to?
A.only EBGP routers, except router -RC
B.all routers, except router -C
C.only iBGP routers
D.only route reflector clients
Answer:B

Cisco examen   certification 352-001   352-001   certification 352-001   352-001

NO.26 You work as a network technician for the Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully, router -RA is the hub router
in a Frame Relay hub-and-spoke deployment. Configure router -RA's serial interface as a
point-to-multipoint interface, and it is servicing three spoke routers. The link between Router -RC and the
frame provider experiences a service disruption, which causes the interface on Router -RC to go down.
How does Router -RA learn of this failure in the network and how does it react?
A.If OAM is configured between Router -RA and Router -RC, router -RA will be notified of the failure after
three missed OAM packets. After the third OAM packet is missed, the frame PVC becomes inactive, and
this event terminates the routing process neighbor relationship established between Router -RA and
Router -RC.
B.Router -RA does not detect the failure in the network and its interface continues to remain in an
operational state. If routing is configured over this link, Router -RA must wait for the neighbor relationship
to time-out before updating its routing table to account for the lost router and its networks.
C.Router -RA must wait for a full LMI status update from the provider frame switch before it is notified
about the PVC status. Once the full LMI status message is received, the routing process neighbor
relationship between Router -RA and Router -RC is immediately terminated.
D.Router -RA immediately detects the failure via LMI notification and its interface is placed in a
non-operational state. If routing is configured over this link, the neighbor relationship is terminated and the
routing table is updated. The change is then propagated as appropriate to the rest of the network.
Answer:B

certification Cisco   certification 352-001   certification 352-001   352-001 examen

NO.27 What is high availability?
A.redundant infrastructure
B.clustering of computer systems
C.reduced MTBF
D.continuous operation of computing systems
Answer:D

Cisco   352-001   352-001   352-001   352-001 examen   352-001 examen

NO.28 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and
catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A.single run
B.multi-homed
C.stub domain EBGP
D.direct BGP peering
Answer:B

Cisco   certification 352-001   352-001   352-001 examen   certification 352-001

NO.29 When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to
help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.)
A.rate limit voice traffic
B.onfigure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C.isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs
D.classify and mark traffic close to the source
Answer:B C D

certification Cisco   352-001   certification 352-001   352-001

NO.30 Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A.reverse the direction of an attack
B.redirect an attack away from its target
C.monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D.delay an attack from reaching its target
Answer:B C

Cisco   352-001 examen   352-001 examen   352-001

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Code d'Examen: 642-681
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers Exam)
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 The Cisco 3200 Series Mobile Access Router has integrated wireless support for which two
FCC-approved frequency ranges? (Choose two.)
A. 900 to 928 MHz
B. 2.400 to 2.4835 GHz
C. 4.940 to 4.990 GHz
D. 5.150 to 5.250 GHz
E. 5.725 to 5.825 GHz
Answer: BC

certification Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681   certification 642-681

NO.2 How many mesh access points can be placed on a map with efficient link rendering in Cisco WCS?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer: B

Cisco   642-681   642-681

NO.3 How is a bridge group name used in a wireless mesh deployment?
A. It is used to retrieve the secret shared key.
B. It logically groups access points to avoid interference from neighboring mesh networks.
C. It is used as a password in communication preceding LWAPP.
D. It is used to join the outdoor mesh network with the controller mobility group.
Answer: B

certification Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681 examen   certification 642-681

NO.4 What is the maximum number of wireless devices that a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location
Appliance can track, operating with Cisco WCS version 4.0?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2500
Answer: D

Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681 examen

NO.5 Which three wireless intrusion-prevention signatures are part of the standard signature set provided by
the Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose three.)
A. ad-hoc network detection
B. rogue network detection
C. rogue access point detection
D. deauth flood detection
E. fake access point detection
F. NetStumbler detection
Answer: DEF

Cisco   642-681 examen   642-681   certification 642-681

NO.6 Which statement describes how RSSI information is processed in a WLAN with a location appliance
using controller-based products?
A. Access points aggregate RSSI information.
B. WLAN controllers compute RSSI information.
C. The location appliance collects the RSSI information.
D. The Cisco WCS collects and aggregates the RSSI information and forwards it to the location
appliance.
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681

NO.7 The CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine uses which protocol for radio management?
A. CCKM
B. LWAPP
C. SNMP
D. WLCCP
Answer: D

Cisco   642-681 examen   certification 642-681   642-681

NO.8 The Newton Manufacturing Company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file-sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70 percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the cable
plant will support it.
Which deployment option would provide the most benefit to the customer?
A. point-to-point link from corporate to manufacturing, and a point-to-point link from corporate to R&D
B. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the manufacturing facility
C. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the corporate office
D. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the R&D facility
Answer: D

Cisco examen   642-681 examen   642-681 examen   certification 642-681   642-681 examen   certification 642-681

NO.9 The Newton manufacturing company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70-percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the current
cable plant will support it.
A wireless bridging solution would provide which three benefits to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. rapid deployment
B. immunity to weather
C. increased bandwidth
D. guaranteed bandwidth
E. increased security
F. lower total cost of ownership
Answer: ACF

certification Cisco   642-681 examen   642-681 examen

NO.10 Which three devices are required to implement a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location Appliance?
(Choose three.)
A. wireless controller
B. wireless domain server
C. Cisco Wireless Control System
D. controller-based access point
E. standalone access point
F. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine
Answer: ACD

Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681 examen   642-681   certification 642-681

NO.11 How many prior configuration versions can be archived on the CiscoWorks WLSE?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-681 examen   642-681

NO.12 Which two key features are unique to the controller-based feature set? (Choose two.)
A. fast secure roaming
B. rogue access point detection
C. access point participation in RF management
D. access point registration via digital certificate
E. dynamic RF control without a dedicated management platform
Answer: DE

Cisco   642-681   certification 642-681   certification 642-681

NO.13 In a mesh network, what is the recommended hop-count limit of a mesh access point from its
associated root access point?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

Cisco   642-681   certification 642-681   642-681 examen   642-681

NO.14 Which one of the following integrated services routers supports the integrated 2.4-GHz b/g access
points?
A. Cisco 1812
B. Cisco 1811
C. Cisco 1841
D. Cisco 1803
Answer: C

certification Cisco   642-681 examen   642-681 examen

NO.15 OFDM provides which improvement over DSSS in the 2.4-GHz range?
A. greater resistance to multipath interference
B. more nonoverlapping channels
C. more bandwidth per channel
D. full-duplex communication
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 642-681   certification 642-681   certification 642-681

NO.16 A customer has a small remote site with 10 standalone access points. In which two of the following
scenarios would it be appropriate to implement CiscoWorks WLSE Express? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and an external AAA server is available.
B. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and no external AAA server is available.
C. EAP-FAST security is required and no external AAA server is available.
D. EAP-FAST security is required and an AAA server is available.
E. MAC authentication is required and no external AAA server is available.
F. MAC authentication is required and an external AAA server is available.
Answer: BC

certification Cisco   642-681   certification 642-681   642-681 examen   642-681

NO.17 What is the maximum number of access points that a high-end Cisco WCS server can support?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 3000
Answer: D

Cisco   certification 642-681   642-681

NO.18 Which two statements correctly describe the Cisco Catalyst WiSM? (Choose two.)
A. It supports up to 100 access points per module.
B. It supports up to 200 access points per module.
C. It supports up to 300 access points per module.
D. It has a maximum of four modules per chassis.
E. It has a maximum of five modules per chassis.
F. It has a maximum of six modules per chassis.
Answer: CE

certification Cisco   642-681   certification 642-681   certification 642-681   642-681 examen

NO.19 What is the Cisco-recommended limit of standalone access points to be managed by a CiscoWorks
WLSE 1130-19 with RF management enabled?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2500
Answer: C

Cisco   642-681   642-681

NO.20 A customer in the United States requires connectivity between two campus locations that are located
6 miles (9.65 km) apart. The customer also needs a minimum data rate of 54 Mbps in an area that is
known to have 2.4-GHz interference. Which two devices will provide a bridge link and avoid the
interference? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series Access Point
B. Cisco Aironet 1210 Series Access Point
C. Cisco Aironet 1242AG Series Access Point
D. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge
E. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series Wireless Bridge
Answer: CE

Cisco   642-681   642-681 examen

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Code d'Examen: 642-902
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Implementing cisco ip routing)
Questions et réponses: 375 Q&As

642-902 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/642-902.html

NO.1 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3
via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network
131.25.0.0/16.
A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.
Answer: E

Cisco   642-902 examen   642-902

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A

Cisco   642-902   642-902

NO.3 Refer to the partial configurations in the exhibit. What address is utilized for DR and BDR identification
on Router1?
A. the serial 1/1 address
B. the serial 2/0 address
C. a randomly generated internal address
D. the configured router-id address
Answer: D

certification Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902   642-902 examen

NO.4 Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address
2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten?
A. 2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B. 2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C. 2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D. 2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B
Answer: A

Cisco   642-902   642-902   642-902   certification 642-902

NO.5 Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Answer: ABE

Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902 examen

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.
Answer: AE

Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902   certification 642-902

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1
be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?
A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4
will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5.
Answer: D

Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902 examen

NO.8 What two situations could require the use of multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
C. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
E. when all equipment is manufactured by Cisco
F. when there are multiple paths to destination networks
Answer: AD

Cisco examen   642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.9 During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command
aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate
network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table.
Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the
aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.
Answer: D

Cisco   642-902   642-902   certification 642-902

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Answer: CD

Cisco   642-902   642-902 examen   642-902 examen

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Answer: AB

Cisco   642-902   642-902

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with
EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not
receiving each other's routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto-summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split-horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute-list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Answer: E

Cisco   642-902   642-902

NO.13 What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Answer: AC

Cisco   642-902 examen   642-902   642-902

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason
Router RT-1 chooses this "best" path.
A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
Answer: A

certification Cisco   642-902 examen   642-902 examen   642-902 examen

NO.15 What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.
Answer: E

Cisco examen   642-902   642-902 examen

NO.16 What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes
is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be
represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
Answer: BE

Cisco examen   642-902 examen   642-902   642-902   642-902 examen

NO.17 A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was
generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values.
Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the
highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of
the command bgp default local-preference 50.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-902   642-902   642-902   642-902

NO.18 Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route.? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE

Cisco   642-902 examen   642-902 examen   642-902

NO.19 How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.
Answer: C

certification Cisco   certification 642-902   642-902   certification 642-902

NO.20 Refer to the output.
What IOS command produces this output? .
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Answer: D

Cisco   642-902   642-902

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Code d'Examen: 646-223
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Unified Communications Express AM)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

646-223 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/646-223.html

NO.1 You are the senior desktop administrator for . You are required to choose a phone that supports many
speed dials and is reachable via multiple lines. Which Cisco Unified IP phone solution would be the best
choice?
A.Cisco Unified IP Phone 7906G
B.Cisco Unified IP Phone 7931G
C.Cisco Unified IP Phone 7945G
D.Cisco Unified IP Phone 7971G
Answer: A

Cisco   646-223   646-223 examen   certification 646-223

NO.2 You work as the network administrator at . has several global offices, including one in Britain, two in
North America, and three in Asia. The company needs to investigate cost-effective voice mail and auto
attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the requirements
of the company?
A.Cisco Unity Express
B.Customized XML applications
C.Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility
Answer: A

Cisco   646-223   646-223 examen   646-223 examen

NO.3 A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one
in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for
your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?
A.Cisco Unity Express
B.Cisco Unity
C.customized XML applications
D.Cisco CallManager
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 646-223   646-223   646-223

NO.4 One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution
because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. Which
strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern.?
A.Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP Communications
supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP components are integrated.
B.An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires
more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a
cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer the customer no flexibility to
implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.
C.With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself in 18
months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of the
ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of migration,
the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D.Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI.
Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions to meet
business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications.
Answer: C

Cisco examen   certification 646-223   646-223 examen   646-223   646-223   646-223 examen

NO.5 Which two baseline discovery questions would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose
two.)
A.In how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?
B.Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the complexity
of your IP infrastructure?
C.How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?
D.Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?
Answer: AC

Cisco   certification 646-223   certification 646-223   certification 646-223   646-223

NO.6 The IT manager from a prospective client organization explains that their network is overloaded. The
network has been in use since 2002 with minimal upgrades, and is composed of several different devices
from different vendors. E-mail is slow, the voice-mail system is outdated, and employee productivity and
responsiveness are suffering. Given this scenario, which business driver is most appropriate to sell a
Cisco IP Communications solution?
A.Reduce operating costs
B.Increase revenue generation
C.Facilitate future expansion
D.reduce the number of employees
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 646-223   646-223

NO.7 An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at
a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco
CallManager Express remotely. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?
A.CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B.Cisco Network Analysis Module
C.command-line interface
D.CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor
Answer: C

certification Cisco   646-223   646-223

NO.8 You work as the network administrator at . And the company is thinking about whether to purchase
licenses for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. The typical branch site has 50 analog
devices (phones, fax machines, door openers, and so on) and keeps 100 IP phones for salespeople. Will
Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express support the number of analog phones and IP phones
described, and what is the maximum possible number of analog phones and IP phones?
A.No. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express only supports up to 88 analog devices and 24 IP
phones.
B.No. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express does not support analog devices, but does
support 24 IP phones.
C.Yes. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express supports up to 88 analog devices and 240 IP
phones.
D.Yes. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express supports up to 50 analog devices and 240 IP
phones.
Answer: C

Cisco examen   646-223 examen   646-223

NO.9 You work as a systems administrator at . Your company is planning to choose a Cisco Unified
Communications solution because IP telephony solutions seems not be worth the cost. Which statement
would be the best annotation to this concern?
A.Cisco Unified Communications supports the idea of a converged network in which telephony and IP
components are integrated, while the traditional office environments in which voice and data are separate.
B.Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can customize these solutions to meet business
demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or applications, while Cisco Unified
Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid ROI.
C.With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco Unified Communications deployment will pay for itself in
18 months on average, and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The drivers of
the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such as the speed of
migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D.An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition requires
more than just a phone, but requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a new shelf of a cabinet to
house the card. These upgrades end up being costly and offer the customer no flexibility to implement
nonproprietary solutions in the future.
Answer: C

Cisco   646-223   646-223   646-223   646-223

NO.10 You require an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of
a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.
Which tool should you use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Answer: B

Cisco   646-223   certification 646-223

NO.11 An account manager is meeting with a service provider customer planning to upgrade each of its
managed routers with a Cisco Unity Express Network Module from the Cisco Unity Express Advanced
Integration Module. Because this customer manages hundreds of routers at dispersed locations, the
customer is concerned about labor costs in upgrading their routers. What should be your response to this
concern?
A.Cisco can send a technician to perform the upgrade at each site.
B.Cisco will ship the modules to the subscriber locations, and the subscriber can easily install them.
C.The subscriber should contact the closest Cisco sales office and bring in each router for installation.
D.Cisco will ship the modules to the service provider, and the service provider must install each module at
each subscriber location.
Answer: B

certification Cisco   646-223   646-223

NO.12 How does a converged solution work?
A.Voice traffic is carried over a circuit-switched network, and data traffic is carried on an IP network
B.Voice, video, and data are integrated onto a single IP network.
C.The network is comprised of proprietary time-division multiplexing hardware and circuits.
D.The LAN is used for data traffic, and the WAN is used to integrate voice and video traffic
Answer: B

Cisco   646-223   646-223   646-223   646-223 examen

NO.13 Which product was designed for small offices, supports 240 phones as a fully integrated feature of the
Cisco access router, and uses Cisco IP phones, Cisco Catalyst switches with inline power and QoS, and
router-based gateways to the PSTN?
A.Cisco CallManager option
B.Cisco CallManager Express
C.Cisco Unity option
D.Cisco Unity Express
Answer: B

Cisco   646-223 examen   certification 646-223   certification 646-223   646-223

NO.14 Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing
TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards?
(Choose two.)
A.QSIG
B.BGP
C.SIP
D.TDM
E.DPNSS
Answer: AE

Cisco   certification 646-223   certification 646-223   646-223   646-223

NO.15 An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications
solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200
users. Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?
A.A full Cisco CallManager solution
B.A full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity
C.Cisco CallManager Express
D.Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express
Answer: D

certification Cisco   646-223   646-223   646-223

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