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Code d'Examen: HP0-G11
Nom d'Examen: HP (CCI Fundamentals for Solution Architects)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A

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NO.3 HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE

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NO.4 HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE

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NO.5 A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When
the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he
receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator
notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B

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NO.6 CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you
verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group
policy is properly redirecting the users' folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking
the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby
preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the
owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B

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NO.9 CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list?
(Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC

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NO.11 By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A

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NO.12 In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC?
(Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select
two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB

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NO.14 When comparing a traditional PC environment to a "dynamic" implementation of HP's CCI solution in
which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of
retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any
networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are
erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C

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NO.15 How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center
managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network
performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be
directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on
their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can
quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE

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NO.16 How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the
HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated
Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet
as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP
ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination
IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD

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NO.17 HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port
exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D

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NO.19 The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does
latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A01
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 179 Q&As

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NO.1 The HP-UX System Management Homepage is started using which URL?
A.http://hostname
B.http://hostname:80
C.http://hostname:2301
D.http://hostname/hpsmh
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?
A.increasing throughput on the network interface
B.binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C.binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D.binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
Answer:C

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NO.3 How do you remove a virtual partition?
A.from the vPar monitor: MON>VPARREMOVE -p
B.from the MP: CM>VPARDELETE and select the name of the vPar from the list
C.execute vparstatus, then verify the vPar is down using vparremove -p
D.bring down all the vPar kernels made from the same nPar and reboot the kernel into the nPar
Answer:C

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NO.4 Where are system startup/shutdown scripts located?
A./etc/rc2.d
B./sbin/init.d
C./sbin/config.d
D./etc/rc.config.d
Answer:B

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NO.5 Click the Task button. Using drag and drop, match each backup/archive tool with its operation.
Answer:
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6

NO.6 If ios c an s hows no device files for a claimed hardware path, which c ommand c an be us ed to recreate them?
A.lssf
B.reboot
C.insf -e
D./sbin/ioinitrc
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?
A.whois
B.uname
C.nsquery
D.hostname
E.gethostbyname
Answer:C

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NO.8 How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?
A.HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B.Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C.Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D.Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX to 4.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which pair of statements is true when launching a tool using HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM Server
B.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
C.- authorizations are configured in Select Access - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
D.- authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions - users are authenticated using
PAM on the HP SIM Server
Answer:A

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NO.10 C lick the T as k button. Us ing drag and drop, match each network c onfiguration file with its c ommon
definition.
Answer:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

NO.11 Which NF S s erver file c ontains a lis t of clients that currently have the s erver's NF S file s ys tems mounted?
A./etc/fstab
B./etc/rmtab
C./etc/nfstab
D./etc/mnttab
E./etc/exports
Answer:B

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NO.12 What are benefits of the HP-UX 11i v3 parallel probing of HBAs, targets, and LUNs? (Select two.)
A.improved boot time
B.improved availability
C.improved virtualization
D.improved I/O scan time
E.improved I/O performance
Answer:A D

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NO.13 Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)
A.netstat
B.ifconfig
C.linkloop
D.lanscan
E.lanadmin
Answer:C D E

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NO.14 Which file s ys tems are included with the HP -UX Foundation Operating Environment (OE)? (Select two.)
A.ext3
B.HFS
C.VxVM
D.memfs
E.Base JFS
F.Online JFS
Answer:B E

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NO.15 Which file c ontains the modified c onfiguration values that will be us ed the next time the cims erver s tarts ?
A.cimserver.conf
B.cimserver_start.conf
C.cimserver_planned.conf
D.cimserver_nextboot.conf
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which commands are recommended to clear the c ontents an ac tive file c alled log-file? (S elect two.)
A.>log-file
B.trim log-file
C.freset log-file
D.cat /dev/null > log-file
Answer:A D

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NO.17 What does the linkloop command test?
A.router activity
B.Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C.MAC address connectivity between network cards
D.loopback address connectivity between network cards
Answer:C

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NO.18 What is the length of an IPv4 address?
A.32 bits
B.48 bits
C.64 bits
D.128 bits
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A.NUMA
B.ccNUMA
C.concurrent dumps
D.single CPU per socket
Answer:C

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NO.20 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.the physical links
C.a physical volume device file
D.the lvm disk resident structures
Answer:D

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NO.21 What are the new features offered in NFS version 4? (Select three.)
A.integrated security
B.asynchronous write support
C.integrated file locking support
D.simplified firewall configuration
E.support for the UDP network transport
Answer:A C D

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NO.22 Which files c ontrol the HP S ys tem Manag ement Homepag e (S MH) c onfiguration? (S elect two.)
A./opt/smh/smh.conf
B./opt/smh/conf/envvars
C ./opt/hpsmh/hpsmh.conf
D./opt/hpsmh/lbin/envvars
E./opt/smh/conf/timeout.conf
F./opt/hpsmh/conf/timeout.conf
Answer:D F

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NO.23 How do you change a volume group name without reloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Answer:C

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NO.24 C lick the E xhibit button. Why do you s ee an "x" for the us ers in the s ec ond field of the /etc/ pas s wd file?
A.password is expired
B.blank password is used.
C.user is currently deactivated.
D.shadow password is enabled.
Answer:D

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NO.25 Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?
A.arp
B.lanscan
C.ifconfig
D.traceroute
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which vPar feature is available on HP -UX 11i v3?
A.shared I/O
B.CPU granularity
C.dynamic migration of I/O
D.dynamic migration of memory
Answer:D

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NO.27 What are the major features of IPFilter on HP -UX 11i v3? (Select three.)
A.creates extensive logs
B.supports X.25 Interfaces
C.installed and enabled by default
D.provides a new GUI configuration tool
E.supports Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer:A B E

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NO.28 Which areas can be locations of system bottlenecks? (Select three.)
A.disk
B.CPU
C.VPMON
D.memory
E.hard partition size
F.graphical interface
G.size of filesystems
Answer:A B D

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NO.29 Which file c ontains the information s ent in res pons e to a bootp reques t?
A./etc/services
B./etc/bootptab
C./etc/inetd.conf
D./etc/bootp.conf
Answer:B

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NO.30 Which feature of HP CIFS allows a Unix uid or gid to be mapped to a Windows account or group?
A.nmbd
B.smbd
C.winbind
D.smbclient
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-090
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX Virtual Server Environment)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that can run on a single physical CPU core with HP
Integrity Virtual Machines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are key benefits of server virtualization?
A. improved reliability and high availability, lower total cost of ownership
B. higher server utilization, increased time to production for new systems
C. higher server utilization, lower total cost of ownership, better application performance
D. system administration is simplified due to less complexity, better application performance
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which UNIX virtualization solution provides one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely
from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. permanently activating a processor within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating a processor within a single OS image for an hour
D. flexible partitioning of multiple OS images with a single processor granularity
Answer: C

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NO.4 There are multiple methods for configuring WBEM authentication credentials for managed systems in
HP Systems Insight Manager.
Select any two of these methods from the options below. (Select two.)
A. mxinitconfig command
B. vseinitconfig command
C. mxagentconfig command
D. mxnodesecurity command
E. First Time Wizard user interface
F. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Discovery user interface
G. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Global Protocol Settings user interface
H. Options -> Protocol Settings -> System Protocol Settings user interface
Answer: DG

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to manage Bullseye and Hannah vPars with HP Global Workload Manager (gWLM). You want
to ensure that, if possible, utilization does not exceed 85% for either workload; even if it means activating
Temporary Instant Capacity. In addition, you also want to maximize the flexibility of the solution.
How should you set up the gWLM policies?
A. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
B. Own Borrow policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 8 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
C. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 7 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
D. Percent Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your company purchases servers for a single application and normally sizes them for the anticipated
maximum load expected in three years. However, many times the actual application never grows beyond
the initial size.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment component reduces costs while ensuring that the capacity is
available if the application grows in size?
A. HP Partitioning solutions
B. HP Utility Pricing solutions
C. HP High Availability solutions
D. HP Virtual Server Environment Suite
Answer: B

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NO.7 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. PRM with fair share scheduler groups
B. gWLM with fair share scheduler groups
C. WLM with a processor set for each vPar
D. gWLM with Own Borrow policies on each vPar
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with its isolation level. There is more than one
correct answer.
Answer:

NO.9 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each product with its minimum size.
Answer:

NO.10 What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: EHIJ

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NO.11 Where can Secure Resource Partitions (that use HP Process Resource Manager) run? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Partitions
B. Linux on Integrity
C. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Host
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Guest
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: CDEG

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NO.14 Your company has a lot of under-utilized HP Integrity servers. However, whenever a new project starts,
it takes weeks to months to provision (plan, get approval, order, install, and configure) a new server.
How can the HP Virtual Server Environment (HP VSE) solutions help shorten the time to deploy a new
operating system instance?
A. They allow you to order servers with unpurchased capacity.
B. They allow you to outsource some of your peak computing requirements to HP.
C. They help plan new servers so that the server is large enough to handle the workload.
D. They allow you to identify free capacity on your existing servers and provision new operating systems
in that capacity.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average
peak utilization of 40%.
What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability - increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching - updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades - replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation - stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has consolidated six L2000 servers to Virtual Partitions in an rx8620 as shown in the diagram.
The Virtual Partitions are managed by Global Workload Manager (gWLM).
Which commands can be used to determine how many processors are allocated to the Mater vPar?
(Select two.)
A. vparstatus on the Mater vPar
B. gwlmstatus on the Mater vPar
C. gwlm monitor on the Mater vPar
D. vparstatus on the gWLM central management server
E. gwlm monitor --workload=Mater on the gWLM central management server
Answer: AE

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NO.18 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with the correct I/O resource granularity.
Answer:

NO.19 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
no Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. gWLM with processor sets
B. gWLM with Own Borrow policies
C. PRM with the fair share scheduler
D. WLM with Temporary Instant Capacity processors
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Task Button.
Using drag and drop, match each virtualization solution with the correct description.
Answer:

NO.21 What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically
meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server
without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be
accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

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NO.22 What are the partitioning components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. vPars
B. nPars
C. containers
D. dynamic LPars
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. HP System Insight Manager
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
H. HP Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: ABGH

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NO.23 Which command line interface (CLI) command may be used to start (power on) a virtual machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmstart
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvmcreate
D. hpvmmodify
E. hpvmconsole
Answer: AE

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NO.24 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of-day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available
uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

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NO.25 HP Serviceguard Manager can manage nodes that run which operating systems? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX v11i
C. HP-UX 10.20
D. OpenVMS v7.x
E. Window 2003 Advanced Server
F. Windows 2003 Exchange Server
Answer: AB

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NO.26 Which HP partitioning products will run inside an nPartition? (Select three.)
A. VMware
B. containers
C. Dynamic LPars
D. Virtual Partitions
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. Secure Resource Partitions
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: DFG

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NO.27 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.28 A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and
application patch levels.
They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest
levels of isolation.
Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions
B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A

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NO.29 In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

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NO.30 What are the utility pricing components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. Pay-per-use
B. Trial Capacity
C. Instant Capacity
D. On/Off Capacity
E. Standby Capacity
F. Grid Compute Utility
G. Pay-per-transaction
H. Global Instant Capacity
I. Temporary Instant Capacity
J. Capacity Upgrade On Demand
Answer: ACHI

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Nom d'Examen: SAIR (Linux Networking (Level 1) )
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Nom d'Examen: SAIR (Apache Webserver (Level 2))
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NO.1 A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system's ipchains. Which of the
following options will change the default input policy to DENY?
A. ipchains -a input DENY
B. ipchains -a output DENY
C. ipchains -P input DENY
D. ipchains -all input DENY
E. ipchains -input DENY
Answer: C

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NO.2 For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0
network?
A. 192.168.3.255
B. 192.168.3.1
C. 192.168.3.0
D. 192.168.3.256
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for
establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)
A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to Y
B. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to Y
C. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to Y
D. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to Y
E. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to Y
Answer: D

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NO.4 Typical implementations of ping use the _____ to send echo requests to other hosts.
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct
accounts exist?
A. TXT
B. PTR
C. SOA
D. MAIL
E. MX
Answer: E

SAIR   3X0-103 examen   3X0-103   3X0-103

NO.6 Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many
possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?
A. 64; 192.168.1.255
B. 254; 192.168.1.0
C. 255; 192.168.1.0
D. 256; 192.168.1.255
E. 128; 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose
three.)
A. 10.1.220.1
B. 12.1.2.4
C. 172.16.0.30
D. 192.168.0.18
E. 187.10.30.200
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

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NO.9 You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact
sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules
are not loaded?
A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfig
B. insmod, ifconfig, route
C. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfig
D. ifconfig, route
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)
A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.
C. TCP supports multicasting.
D. UDP supports multicasting.
E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting.
Answer: C

SAIR   3X0-103 examen   3X0-103   3X0-103

NO.11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?
A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.
B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.
C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.
D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following can tunneling be used for?
A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.
B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.
C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.
D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.
B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.
C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.
D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name
server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)
A. arp -v
B. arp -a
C. arp -n
D. arp -s
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)
A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.
B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.
C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.
D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent
congestion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for
ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)
A. rpc
B. tele
C. login
D. ftp
E. mutt
F. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.18 If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet
address?
A. 192.0.0.0
B. 192.168.0.0
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 0.0.0.61
Answer: C

SAIR   3X0-103   3X0-103

NO.19 inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the
contents of the "inetd.conf" file.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

SAIR examen   3X0-103 examen   3X0-103   3X0-103   3X0-103

NO.20 Which of the following can you do with the "ping" command? (Choose two.)
A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.
B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.
C. View the MAC address of a given host.
D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.
Answer: AD

SAIR   3X0-103   3X0-103

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NO.1 In order to speed foreign key creation, Oracle9i will cache the first _____ primary key values
only where there are multirow DML statements.
A.32
B.128
C.256
D.512
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which type of index should be created to spread the distribution of index updates across the
index tree?
A.B-tree indexes
B.bitmap indexes
C.reverse-key indexes
D.function-based indexes
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.3 Which type of ROWID does Oracle use for global indexes on partitioned tables?
A.local
B.extended
C.restricted
Correct:B

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.4 Which two statements about dimensions are true? (Choose two.)
A.A hierarchy can consist of multiple levels.
B.A dimension can be based on multiple tables.
C.A dimension can contain only a single hierarchy.
D.No special privileges are required to create a dimension.
Correct:A B

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.5 Examine the statement: DROP TABLESPACE IND2 INCLUDING CONTENTS AND DATAFILES;
What is the result of the statement?
A.The contents and data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are dropped.
B.The statement will only succeed if the IND2 tablespace was built using Oracle-Managed Files (OMF)
data files.
C.The statement will only succeed if the data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are Oracle-Managed
Files (OMF) or if the database was created using OMF.
D.The contents of the tablespace are dropped along with all its data files except those identified with the
Oracle-Managed Files (OMF) naming convention.
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.6 What do you need to do in order for the Database Resource Manager to estimate, in advance,
the execution time of a statement?
A.Set the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
B.Gather optimizer statistics on related objects.
C.Set the TIMED_OS_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
D.Nothing
Correct:B

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.7 Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two.)
A.External tables can be updated.
B.External tables are read-only tables.
C.Indexes can be created on external tables.
D.Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
Correct:B D

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.8 Which three features are provided by Recovery Manager and NOT provided by user-managed
backup and recovery? (Choose three.)
A.online backups
B.skipping unused blocks
C.partial database backups
D.incremental block-level backup
E.detection of corrupted blocks during backup
Correct:B D E

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.9 What statement is true about taking a database default temporary tablespace offline?
A.You cannot take a default temporary tablespace offline.
B.The database must be quiesced before you perform this action.
C.You must ensure that all users are assigned to an alternative temporary tablespace first.
D.You must first ensure that the default temporary tablespace has the permanent tablespace
characteristic.
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.10 Online index rebuild functionality has been extended to include which four index structures?
(Choose four.)
A.bitmap indexes
B.reverse key indexes
C.function-based indexes
D.key-compressed indexes on regular tables
E.key-compressed indexes on IOT (including secondary indexes)
Correct:B C D E

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.11 Which CREATE TABLE parameter should you be concerned with if the length of rows in an
index-organized table vary over a wide range of values?
A.PCTFREE
B.PCTUSED
C.PCTINCREASE
D.PCTTHRESHOLD
Correct:D

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.12 What is true about version-enabled tables?
A.The unit of versioning is the schema.
B.It is possible to version enable a table pertaining to SYS.
C.There are as many segments as versions for the same base table.
D.It is possible to create workspaces if there is no version-enabled table in the database.
Correct:D

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.13 Users complain that SQL statements using a particular index fail. Using DBVERIFY, you find
that two separate blocks in the index have become corrupt. The database data files for user data
and index are very large. What is the least disruptive recovery strategy available in Oracle9i?
A.Rebuild the index using the online option.
B.Take the individual data file offline (not the whole tablespace), restore and recover the data file from
backup with RMAN, then set the data file online again.
C.Without setting the individual data file offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to restore and
recover only those blocks.
D.Take the individual data file (not the whole tablespace) offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to
restore and recover only those blocks, then set the data file online again.
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.14 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.Composite partitioning enables you to prevent partition elimination.
B.Composite partitioning supports hash partitioned global indexes.
C.Composite partitioning is ideal for both historical data and data placement.
D.Composite partitioning provides high performance and manageability, like range partitioning.
Correct:C D

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.15 Consider the following scenario using incremental backups. A level 1 backup is taken on the
first of the month. A level 2 backup is taken every Sunday, and a level 3 backup is taken daily. If
the database gets corrupted on the second Wednesday of the month and is lost, which scenario
would restore the database completely?
A.the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
B.the monthly backup (level 1) and the daily backup (level 3)
C.a base level backup (level 0) is missing and nothing can be recovered
D.the monthly backup (level 1), the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.16 What is one benefit of using the ALTER TABLE ... MOVE command rather than a CREATE
TABLE ... AS SELECT command?
A.row chaining is eliminated.
B.index definitions are retained.
C.duplicate space is not required while the command executes.
D.all operations, such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, and SELECT can be performed while the
operation completes.
Correct:B

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.17 What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?
A.the filename format
B.information stored inside a data dictionary table
C.information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance
D.information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.18 Consider the following statement: SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SCHEMA_STATS (- 2>
ownname => 'OE', - 3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, - 4> method_opt
=> 'for all columns size AUTO'); What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the
METHOD_OPT option?
A.The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all table, column,
and index statistics for the OE schema.
B.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application
uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the
column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for
all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.19 In the Oracle9i Data Guard architecture, what is the purpose of the Log Transport Services?
A.to transfer redo log information to one or more destinations
B.to apply redo log records sent from the primary database to a standby database at the receiving
location
C.to synchronize changes to the control files on all standby databases with changes on the primary
database when a log switch occurs
D.to batch archived log files on the primary database until a defined number of checkpoints have been
processed and then to distribute the archives to each standby database
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.20 Which four are true regarding the Workspace Manager in Oracle9i? (Choose four.)
A.automatically versions all tables
B.automatically installed with Oracle9i
C.merges changes with parent rows or discards changes
D.provides mechanism to identify and resolve conflicts
E.allows for version enabling tables by use of a packaged procedure
Correct:B C D E

Oracle   1Z0-035 examen   1Z0-035   1Z0-035

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Peoplesoft Enterprise 9 General Ledger)
Questions et réponses: 81 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 10 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-526
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation 10.1.3 Essentials )
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-519
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Inventory Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-533
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Hyperion Planning 11 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Program with PL/SQL)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about PeopleSoft trees?
A. The structure and development of your PeopleSoft trees directly impacts the efficiency of your
organizaiton's reporting, processing, and ongoing maintenance of fields.
B. The Insert Detail button on the tree allows you to actually add values to the detail value tables if the
value does not already exist (such as an Account to the GL_ACCOUNT_TBL record).
C. You can create only one tree per ChartField.
D. A tree in draft mode cannot be used in reporting until it has been saved in a valid state.
Answer: A, B, D

Oracle   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228   1Z0-228   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228

NO.2 Your organization requires that all General Ledger journal entries for the Payables liability account have
a blank department on the entries. Identify the best approach to achieve this business requirement.
A. Use ChartField combination edits.
B. Manually change the erroneous journal entries.
C. Use Journal Entry Template to hide the department field.
D. Use page-level PeopleCode to enforce the business rule.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The InterUnit Activity Report shows you the InterUnit ChartField for every ______ soecified.
A. SetID
B. Ledger
C. Legal entity
D. Business Unit
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-228   certification 1Z0-228   1Z0-228

NO.4 Which statement is FALSE about Standard Journals?
A. Standard Journal Entries (SJEs) allow you to automate the entry of similar or identical journal entries.
B. You must define a schedule for a Spread SJE type.
C. You can use a normal journal entry as a model for the SJE.
D. A Recurring journal entry is an SJE type entry that is reproduced in its entirety on a fixed schedule.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228   1Z0-228

NO.5 Which are the three categories of report variables that are available for use when creating PS/nVision
Layouts?
A. Tree
B. Source
C. Summary
D. Scope-Related
E. Report Request
F. Date and Time Period
Answer: D, E, F

Oracle examen   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228

NO.6 What does altering the description on an existing tree node do?
A. changes the description for that node (with no effective date) only on that tree
B. creates an error message that the description of the tree nodes cannot be changed
C. creates a new effective-dated row, which allows you to input a new description only for that tree
D. allows you to change the current description (or create a new effective-dated description), which
updates all tress that use this node
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228 examen

NO.7 To which level is the Define Options and Defaults page for the Spreadsheet Journal Import template
set?
A. Line level
B. Workbook level
C. Journal level
D. Journal sheet level
Answer: C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-228   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228 examen

NO.8 On which page would you set up the Cross-Product Drill Down capability for online inquirles?
A. Ledger Template
B. Joumal Entry Template
C. Accounting Entry Defintion
D. Joumal Generator Template
E. Ledgers For A Unit - Journal Post Options
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-228   1Z0-228 examen   certification 1Z0-228   1Z0-228   1Z0-228

NO.9 Identify two correct statements about the Combination Edit setup and process.
A. Summary Ledgers can use Combo Edits.
B. It does not matter whether you use ranges of values in trees or detail values when it comes to
efficiency and how often you must rebuild the COMBO_DATA_TBL.
C. Rules can invalidate a ChartField that has a blank ChartField value.
D. The COMBO_DATA_TBL can be rebuilt faster than the Master Selector tables.
E. The decisions on how to implement ChartField combination editing and the types of underlying tables
to use greatly affect the efficiency, speed, and ease of maintenance.
Answer: C, E

Oracle examen   1Z0-228   1Z0-228   1Z0-228 examen   1Z0-228   1Z0-228

NO.10 Identify the best description for the Journal Edit Hierarchy.
A. Journal overrides Ledger.
B. Business Unit overrides Ledger.
C. Business Unit overrides Source.
D. Source overrides Business Unit.
E. Journal Edit overrides based on User Preferences.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-884
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Cluster 3.2 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 243 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-881
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Security Administrator Certified Expert Exam)
Questions et réponses: 293 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-880
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Network Administrator Certified Expert Exam)
Questions et réponses: 317 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-879
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
Questions et réponses: 612 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-878
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
Questions et réponses: 356 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-877
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part I)
Questions et réponses: 302 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to have two failover IP addresses on separate subnets both fail over along with an
application. How do you create your IP address resources?
A. You can create a single LogicalHostname resource respresenting both IP addresses.
B. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in the same resource group
as the application resource.
C. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in two separate resource
groups. A resource group can only contain one LogicalHostname resource.
D. You must create a SharedAddress resource. Only a SharedAddress resource can refer to multiple IP
addresses.
Answer: B

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   certification 1Z0-884

NO.2 Which two Veritas Volume Manager packages need to be installed on all nodes connected to the
shared storage? (Choose two.)
A. VRTSjre
B. VRTSvlic
C. VRTSvxvm
D. VRTSobgui
E. VRTSvxman
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.3 Solaris 10 allows resource allocation to users by assigning them projects. Consider having to
automatically assign a project to an Oracle user, to start your HA-Oracle database.
Which two options would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use the newtask command
B. Assign a project to the user using only the /etc/project file.
C. Assign a project to the user using both the /etc/project and the /etc/user_attr file.
D. Use the Resource_project_name property to pass the project to be used when starting Oracle.
Answer: C,D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.4 A customer has a resource group called nfs-rg with a SUNW.nfs resource called nfs-rs. They want to
check how the Failover_mode property has been set.
Which is the correct command used to accomplish this task ?
A. clrg status
B. clrs show -g nfs-rg
C. clrs show -v nfs-rs
D. clrs list -v nfs-rs
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.5 There are various ways to interact with Sun Cluster 3.2 to do daily administration.
Which method is prohibited?
A. using the clsetup command
B. editing the ccr
C. using Sun Cluster Manager
D. using standard cluster commands
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.6 You just created a Solaris Volume Manager diskset from the shared storage containing two disks, one
from each of two arrays. You added two connected nodes as mediators for the diskset.
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must manually create a partition on the diskset disks to hold a metadb replica.
B. The metainit commands that you use to build volumes on the disks will fail unless you mirror across
arrays.
C. The mediators allow you to lose a disk and subsequently maintain high availability if a node fails.
D. If you lose one of the disks and then lose the node that is primary for the diskset, the entire cluster will
lose access to the diskset.
E. The Solaris Volume Manager commands that added disks to the diskset automatically created a single
metadb replica on each disk.
Answer: C,E

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.7 Which is applicable to the Cluster Configuration Repository (CCR)?
A. The CCR is only accessed by the cluster software at boot time.
B. The CCR contains information that is critical to the operation of the cluster.
C. The CCR should be configured on shared storage so that all nodes can access it
D. To ensure consistency between the cluster nodes the CCR should be manually copied to all nodes on
a regular basis.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.8 Occasionally you may need to rebuild your cluster. If you rebuilt a cluster named "dev" without
removing the old quorum server information, you may want to clean up the old quorum server information
manually.
Which command would you use to remove the old quorum server information after using the command
clqs show to obtain the cluster name and ID?
(--- Cluster dev (id 0x448DE82F) Registrations ---)
A. clclust remove -F quorum-serv-v
B. clqs clear -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
C. scquorum -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
D. Reboot the quorum server
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.9 You have a two-node cluster configured. Node one is out of the cluster. You make changes to node two
(add resource groups and disk device groups). You now shut down node two and try to boot node one,
which fails due to amnesia prevention.
Which two keep node one from starting the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. scsi-2 reservations
B. Persistent reservations on the quorum device.
C. Nothing will keep node one from starting the cluster.
D. Node one's key has been previously preempted from the quorum device.
Answer: B,D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.10 A customer needs to do some maintenance to an application resource in their NFS resource group.
They want to have NFS resources active, but want to be sure that if anything goes wrong during the
operation, the NFS service is NOT restarted or the resource group switched.
How can this be accomplished ?
A. The customer can suspend the resource group.
B. The customer can place the resource group into a quiescent state.
C. The customer can place the resource group offline and then enable only the required
resources.
D. The customer can keep the resource group online and then disable monitoring for all the resources.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.11 The cluster administrator is running SunCluster 3.2 on x86 machines running Solaris 10 update 3, and
needs to boot one of the x86 machines into non-cluster mode.
To which menu item does the cluster administrator add -x' using the GRUB editor?
A. kernel /platform/i86pc/multiboot
B. kernel /platform/i86pc/suserboot
C. Solaris 10 11/06 s10x_u3wos_08 X86
D. module /platform/i86pc/boot_archive
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.12 You run cldg status to view the status of your device group. What must be true about the node that is
listed as the Primary.?
A. It is the preferred node for the device group.
B. It is the current primary node for the device group, not necessarily the preferred node.
C. A global file system configured on a volume of the device group can only be accessed from that node.
D. The device group can run only on that node. If that node fails, the device group will become
unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which are three reasons to disable automatic quorum device configuration in a two-node cluster?
(Choose three.)
A. You have a dual ported disk or LUN that is not capable of being a quorum device.
B. You want to use a second internal drive for your quorum device.
C. You want to use the quorum server as the quorum device.
D. You want to use a NAS device as a quorum device.
E. You want to use your boot device as your quorum device.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Which two types of communication can occur on the private interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. cluster heartbeats
B. application data transfer
C. vxconfigd communication
D. Solaris Volume Manager communication
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Which commands would be used to define a third private network using switches for a two-node
cluster?
A. clintr add-privnet -s switch3 node1:bge2,node2:bge2
B. clintr add node1:bge2
C. clintr add node1:bge2
D. clintr add -s switch3 node1:bge2 node2:bge2
Answer: B

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NO.16 A patch has been released for a recently discovered security issue. The cluster administrator has
downloaded the patch and the README shows that it is a rebooting node patch that must be installed in
single-user mode.
What steps should be followed to apply this patch with the minimum amount of downtime for the service.
A. On each node in turn run the commands:
clnode evacuate -
n
shutdown -gO -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
B. On one node run the following commands:
clrg status
clrg offline
+
On each node in turn run the commands:
shutdown -g0 -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
When all nodes are patched run the following commands from one node:
clrg online
+
clrg status
C. Connect to all nodes using the cluster console and apply the patch simultaneously.
Reboot each node in turn.
D. On one node run the commands:
clrg status
cluster shutdown -g0
y
Reboot each node outside cluster.
boot -sx
Apply the patch on each node and reboot back into cluster.
boot
Answer: A

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NO.17 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, the mountpoints default to
"/poolname/fsname". You can change the mountpoint name to whatever you want. You want to change
the mountpoint for the filesystem myfs1 in the pool devpool to /oradb.
Which command do you use?
A. zset mount=/oradb devpool/myfs1
B. zpool setmount=/oradb poolname/fsname
C. zfs /oradb set mountpoint devpool/all
D. zfs set mountpoint=/oradb devpool/myfs1
Answer: D

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NO.18 You want to create a role that contains only the authorizations Solaris.cluster.modify and
Solaris.cluster.admin. As you then decide which users should be able to successfully access every cluster
command, you can just assign these users to the role and give them the role password.
These users will never need to have the root password, but they will be able to execute every cluster
command.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This scheme will work for both cluster commands and Sun Cluster Manager.
B. There are still some cluster-related activities, such as modifying the /etc/vfstab file, that the user might
NOT be able to do.
C. The users who switch to the role will still NOT have Solaris.cluster.read authorization, so they will not
be able to view cluster status and configuration.
D. This scheme will work as the users try to access command line commands, but it will NOT work if the
users execute operations through Sun Cluster Manager.
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 What is the complete list of acceptable Veritas volumes to hold your Sun Cluster 3.2 application data
on arrays of JBOD disks?
A. mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
B. simple mirrors, mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
C. concatenated subdisks, striped subsets, simple mirrors
D. striped mirrors, striped subdisks, concatenated subdisks, concatenated mirrors
Answer: B

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NO.20 The SUNW.HAStoragePlus resource manages different types of storage. In which case is it mandatory
to configure HAStoragePlus?
A. to manage global raw devices
B. to manage global file systems
C. to manage failover file systems
D. to manage global file system devices with an Oracle RAC configuration
Answer: C

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NO.21 You have a three-node cluster and have put one node into maintenance mode.
What do you need to do to give the node its vote back and bring it back into the cluster?
A. Re-install the node to fix the maintenance mode.
B. Reboot the node, the maintenance mode will reset automatically.
C. Remove the node from the cluster, then add it back into the cluster.
D. Add another quorum disk device before booting the node back into the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.22 A two-node Solaris Volume Manager campus cluster has been installed at sites A and B. A preferred site
A can be configured so that the cluster survives the loss of site B without requiring manual intervention.
Which is the correct procedure to create a preferred site A ?
A. Put the quorum device at site A and configure the majority of the diskset metadb replicas on the disks
located at site A.
B. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra metadb to the disks in the diskset at both sites A and
B.
C. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra local metadb to the root disk on the server located at
site A.
D. You cannot do this unless you configure a third site with the quorum device and with
the diskset configured across all three sites, so that the loss of one site will always ensure that two out of
the three metadbs are present.
Answer: A

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NO.23 A system administrator has received the Java ES distribution as a two-CD set, and wishes to configure
an NFS server to use as an install server for Sun Cluster 3.2.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Mount and share each CD from a separate server.
B. This is NOT possible, only the DVD distribution can be used in this case.
C. Create a working directory, share it using NFS, and combine the contents of both CDs into it using the
cpio command.
D. Mount the first CD and share it using NFS. When prompted by the installer, unshare and unmount the
CD, and repeat the process with the second CD.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which two components are part of the Sun Cluster 3.2 software stack? (Choose two.)
A. operating system
B. Sun Cluster 3.2 agents
C. Sun Cluster 3.2 framework
D. volume management software
Answer: B,C

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NO.25 You need to remove the Veritas Volume Manager volume named nfsvol in the nfsdg disk group which
is mounted on /nfs.
Which set of commands are used to perform this procedure?
A. umount /nfs; cldg remove nfsdg -r volume nfsvol; scconf sync nfsdg
B. umount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsdg
C. unmount -g nfsdg all; vxassist -g nfsdg remove all; cldg sync nfsvol
D. unmount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsvol
Answer: B

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NO.26 You have two adapters that you want to configure in the same IPMP group. Neither of them are yet
configured into any IPMP group. The cluster nodes are already configured.
Which tasks must you perform to configure the group?
A. You need to rerun the scinstall utility and let it create your IPMP groups for you.
B. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx files for each adapter, using the group option to place
them in the same group.
C. You need to use the clinterconnect (clintr) command and specify the adapters for which you want to
create IPMP groups.
D. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx file for only one adapter. In that file, you list all the
adapters that will be in the same group.
Answer: B

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NO.27 When using ZFS to maintain your cluster file systems, what other software volume management
application do you need to manage the device groups?
A. You do not need any other volume manager software.
B. SVM is needed to manage your disksets.
C. VxVM is needed to manage your disk groups.
D. Veritas CVM is needed to manage the shared disk groups.
Answer: A

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NO.28 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, how do you specify the file system
mountpoint?
A. ZFS does not use mountpoints.
B. You must define mountpoints in the /etc/vfstab file first.
C. ZFS mountpoints default to /poolname/fsname, but you can change them to whatever you want using
the zfs command
D. Sun Cluster chooses the name of the file system mountpoints for ZFS.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which statement is incorrect regarding the in.mpathd daemon?
A. IPMP uses ping to contact any router listed in the routing table.
B. If no router exists, IPMP submits a ping to the all-hosts multicast address.
C. If static host routes are available, these hosts will be contacted using ping.
D. You can configure link state monitoring on Solaris 9.
Answer: D

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NO.30 What is the minimum number of nodes required to make a highly available cluster?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
Answer: B

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