2014年7月30日星期三

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IBM C2150-198 C2030-280

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Code d'Examen: C2150-198
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Security Access Manager V7.0 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2030-280
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cloud Computing Infrastructure Architect V1)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 A company is setting up a cloud environment to host several of their applications.
These applications
vary in importance and the company wants to ensure that the most business critical
applications get the
most resource. Which solution will help achieve this goal?
A. WebSphere eXtreme Scale
B. WebSphere Business Events
C. WebSphere Virtual Enterprise
D. WebSphere Business Monitor
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two methods that address both network infrastructure security and
performance for a cloud
computing environment? (Choose two.)
A. encryption (SSL)
B. limiting network hops
C. network load balancing
D. denial of service prevention
E. intrusion detection and prevention
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A company hosts office applications on a stand alone server in their data center. A
recent spike in
demand for one of their applications resulted in the denial of access to some potential users.
Which
characteristic of the cloud service delivery model would meet the fluctuating demands of the
company's
users?
A. service ubiquity
B. service elasticity
C. self-service access
D. usage-based billing
Answer: B

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NO.4 A cloud infrastructure should be architected to accommodate which technical risks?
A. overflowing network buffers resulting in loss of data
B. termination of service by an internet service provider
C. fiber cable damage causing a failover to copper channels
D. unauthorized configuration changes to storage network devices
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which technology is used in certain IBM WebSphere DataPower appliances to provide
identity
verification of public cloud endpoints and to securely transmit encrypted data between
enterprise
endpoints and public cloud endpoints in an integrated cloud environment?
A. IBM Tivoli CloudBurst Appliance
B. WebSphere CloudBurst Appliance
C. WebSphere DataPower Secure Communicator
D. WebSphere DataPower Secure Cloud Connector
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two considerations before moving data to a public cloud? (Choose two.)
A. A company must restructure all data to accommodate a public cloud data model.
B. A company should analyze all legal and regulatory issues that pertain to the data.
C. A company can safely assume that cloud services will replicate and backup all of their
data.
D. A company should encrypt all data so that they do not have to analyze legal and
regulatory issues.
E. A company should analyze data structure to see if they can take advantage of public cloud
data
models.
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which component is necessary to view monitoring reports for IBM Service Delivery
Manager?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
B. Tivoli Service Request Manager
C. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
D. WebSphere Administrative Console
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which IBM product implements metering capabilities?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli System Automation
D. IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager
Answer: D

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Dernières IBM M2070-640 C2020-013 A2040-915 de la pratique de l'examen questions et réponses téléchargement gratuit

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Code d'Examen: M2070-640
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Enterprise Content Management Sales Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2020-013
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SPSS Data Mining for Business Partners v2)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2040-915
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 A site needs to be created within portal with its own title, user repository, default
content, and branding.
What single portlet is provided for creating a site within portal?
A. Content Authoring portlet
B. Theme Customizer portlet
C. Virtual Portal Manager portlet
D. New Site Creation Wizard portlet
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the
following portlet
code?
Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE);
String vendor = p.getAttribute("Vendor").toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key "vendor" for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the "vendor" attribute for an identified or authenticated user, or null
for an
anonymous user.
Answer: B

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NO.3 John has developed a custom step-up handler. He has implemented the two methods
init() and
establishAuthLevel() of the StepUpAuthHandler interface. What is the outcome of the method
establishAuthLevel() returning null?
A. A null pointer exception is thrown.
B. The browser is redirected to the portal login page.
C. The browser displays the HTTP error 403 Forbidden.
D. The authentication level is assumed to be successfully established.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is NOT a functionality provided by IBM Rational
Application
Developer?
A. Wizards for creating portlets and portlet applications
B. WebDav client for working with Page Builder 2 theme
C. Ability to deploy portlets on a local WebSphere Portal server
D. Ability to deploy portlets on a remote WebSphere Portal server
Answer: B

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NO.5 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new
WSRP 2.0 feature
is enabled in WebSphere Portal V7.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without wiring
the
producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following options are advantages of using Lotus OneUI for a portal
theme?
A. Keyboard accessibility with hover effects, also providing focus effects or equivalent
facilitation.
B. The code base is tested for stability, accessibility, and bidirectionality in multiple browsers.
C. Every page is enforced to look the same regardless of content, disallowing different
browsers to make
the pages look different under any circumstance or user input.
D. A and B are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with
each other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to
develop a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source
data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object
Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global
variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen A4040-120 C4030-670 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A4040-120
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C4030-670
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Technical Support V1)
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer named Your Company has invited competitive vendors to discuss a new server farm for an
expanding area of their business. The customer is considering a variety of server types. Including multiple
processor and blade servers. In addition, the new server farm will consist of NAS servers, fiber-based
storage and fiber-based tape devices. Which TWO of the following are reasons for choosing an IBM
solution over the competitors' solutions?
A. Light based diagnostics on servers is exclusive to IBM.
B. IBM is the only vendor that provides Systems Management.
C. Different Service Level Agreements are an exclusive offering from IBM.
D. The IBM Totalstorage portfolio includes NAS, SAN storage and SAN networking products.
E. The IBM server portfolio consists of multiple processor options in tower and rack form factors.
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 An xSeries Sales specialist has engaged in a new customer opportunity for IBM eServer xSeries
servers and will soon be meeting with the customer.The customer has a large number of non-IBM servers
installed and has expressed a desire to consolidate their servers. In order to prepare a proposal, which
TWO of the following QUESTION NO:s would be the most appropriate to ask the customer?
A. Are you interested in 64 bit servers?
B. What do you like best about your current vendor?
C. How many intel servers do you currently have installed?
D. What types of applications are running on their servers?
E. Do they currently buy direct from the vendor or through a channel partner?
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Exhibit
Which of the following tasks is most important to accomplish to increase the adds of winning?
A. Nominate the customer for a funded IBM Server Consolidation study
B. Call the IBM Client Representative and ask him to influence the company's executives.
C. Using IBM's opportunity Management system,request a technical team be formed to design a solution.
D. Develop a strategy to better understand and possibly influence the customer's success criteria.
E. Request that the customer sign a focus letter to enable the sales specialist to offer the customer
special bid pricing.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer named Your Company is looking for a new 4-way server with 875 GB internal storage to run
Oracle 91. A competitor presented the customer with a solution that includes Dell PowerEdge 6650. The
xSeries Sales Specialist presented the customer with the IBM Eserver x365. Which of the following
should the xSeries Sales Specialist emphasize as an advantage over the competitor's solution?
A. Easy deployment tools
B. Support for internal tape drive
C. Chipkill memory and Hot Spare Memory
D. Ability to hold six internal hard drives
Answer: D

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NO.5 Exhibit
A customer named Your Company decides to implement an IBM Server Consolidation solution consisting
of IBM eServer x445s and VMware software. The customer would like to have the hardware begin arriving
next week. Which of the following should be Xseries Sales Specialist's next step?
A. Update the IBM opportunity management record to 'Win'
B. Meet with the customer to discuss installation activities
C. Coordinate the IBM Technical team to double check the configuration
D. Verify delivery commitment can be met and if needed, reset customer expectations
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer named Your Company is reluctant to pursue a 16-way IBM eServer x445 solution because
the server does not look like a "mainframe" The Xseries Sales
Specialist believes the customer may be entertaing another vendor. Who among the following could that
competitor be?
A. HPQ
B. Sun
C. Dell
D. Unisys
Answer: D

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NO.7 Exhibit
Which of the following best summarizes the customer's business objectives?
A. Reduced operating costs
B. More effective server utilization
C. Consolidation to one operating system
D. A comprehensive system management implementation
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has a three-year old database server. The server does not have fault-tolerant protection
against power and network card failures. Which are problems . The customer has encountered in the past.
In addition, the server requires additional processing power to meet the current requirements. The
customer does not want to introduce any new software into their environment at point. Which of the
following would be an appropriate solution to address the customer's issue?
A. Install a new server that has options for fault-tolerant power supplies and network cards.
B. Install new LAN switch with built-in network redundancy and a UPS to protect against power failure
C. Install a new server that will cluster with the existing server to provide backup facilities to the existing
server
D. Upgrade the current server with new network cards, which support fault-tolerant features
Answer: A

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2014年7月29日星期二

Pass4Test offre de Motorola Solutions MSC-331 MSC-111 MSC-321 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: MSC-331
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-111
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-321
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Advanced Data Capture (ADC) Solution)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 The design phase of the pilot is an area that is often neglected. Which of the following is NOT
true regarding the design phase?
A. The best time to influence a pilot's trustworthy design is at pilot completion.
B. The design phase typically relies on information gathered from the planning phase.
C. Good pilot design should ensure or facilitate a framework for periodic project evaluation.
D. During the design phase you establish best practices to follow for this phase by way of functional
and design specifications, and you perform risk analysis to identify threats and vulnerabilities in
your pilot.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Motorola Enterprise Mobility Configuration Tools (EMCTs) are comprehensive tools designed
to assist in staging, provisioning, and troubleshooting, as well as improving the user experience with
Motorola Mobile Devices. Which of the following are Motorola EMCTs Tools (select THREE)?
A. StartupCtl
B. PowerTest
C. RemCapture
D. CtlPanelWM
E. Spread Spectrum Analyzer
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola
Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)?
A. Aegis
B. Fusion
C. Odyssey
D. Windows Zero Configuration
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Your customer has selected a MC9190-G with a SE4500-SR scan engine. They are now asking
you what the maximum distance they can expect to scan 13 Mil standard UPC-A barcodes. Which of
the following would be your response?
Please reference the Technical Specifications exhibit at the bottom.
A. 6.8 in (17.27 cm)
B. 12.0 in (30.48 cm)
C. 15.5 in (39.37cm)
D. 27.0 in (68.58 cm)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your are having issues establishing radio communication on a mobile computer and you think
that the client radio output is the problem. In which of the following areas can you adjust the
mobile computers radio transmit power?
A. Fusion Options
B. System Options
C. Regulatory Options
D. Profile Management Options
E. You cannot change the mobile computers radio transmit power
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following memory forms is used in most memory cards and solid-state drives?
A. NOR Flash
B. NAND Flash
C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
D. Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Enterprise Mobility Developers Kit (EMDK) for .NET allows Microsoft: .NET Compact
Framework developers to programmatically access the enterprise mobility features on the devices.
This developer kit is designed for use with all of the following versions of Microsoft Visual Studio
EXCEPT:
A. Microsoft Visual Studio 2003
B. Microsoft Visual Studio 2005
C. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: D

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NO.8 A client needs a mobile device solution that requires the following:
GSM and/or CDMA WWAN
Small Form Factor
Consumer Style Device
Occasional Barcode and Photo Capture
What would be the best mobile device selection from the mobile device portfolio?
A. ET1
B. ES400
C. MC75A
D. MC3190
E. MC9090G
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-09A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: L50-501
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Implementation Engineer)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: L50-502
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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