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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Building ProCurve Resilient, Adaptive Networks)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.3 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.4 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.9 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.10 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.11 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.15 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.17 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-311
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView TeMIP)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Based on directive cascading, what is the alarm collection chain?
A.RESUME OC + NOTIFY DOMAIN + GETEVENT entity
B.CREATE AO+ GETEVENT entity
C.CREATE entity + DISPATCH event + LISTEN event
D.ENABLE OC
Answer:A

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NO.2 The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______
Management Module.
A.Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM
B.Domain, Alarms FM
C.MCC, Event Filtering FM
D.TeMIP, Framework FM
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity?
A.notify
B.getevent
C.summarize
D.subscribe
Answer:B

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NO.4 An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO.
A.no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event
B.there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event
C.a Low Level Filter discarded this event
D.the connection with the Oracle database has been lost
E.a security profile has blocked the collection of this event
Answer:A C

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NO.5 The Notify is a directive of the _______ class and is handled by the _______ Management Module.
A.notification, Notification FM
B.domain, Domain FM
C.domain, Notification FM
D.entity, Notification FM
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-091
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 149 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.a physical volume device file
C.the lvm disk resident structures
D.the physical links
Correct:C

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NO.2 How do you change a volume group name without unloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which command shows all physical volumes in a volume group?
A.vgdisplay
B.pvdisplay
C.lvdisplay
D.lvmdisplay
Correct:A

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NO.4 Order the steps required to perform a complete integrity check of a journaled file system.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice7---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.5 If /tmp is 100% full, which commands are used to determine its volume location and if free space
is available on that disk?
A.bdf, vgdisplay
B.lvdisplay, diskinfo
C.bdf, lvdisplay, pvdisplay
D.vgdisplay, lvdisplay, diskinfo
Correct:C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the lost+found directory?
A.allows fsck to recover orphaned files and directories
B.required on JFS file systems for journaling
C.functions as a trash can for the file system
D.a temporary storage for deleted files
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which level is used by fbackup to complete a full backup?
A.0
B.1
C.9
D.F
E.V
Correct:A

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NO.8 What describes the difference between block and character I/O?
A.Block I/O is used to send data to disk and character I/O is not.
B.Character I/O is used to send data to disk and block I/O is not.
C.Block I/O goes through the buffer cache and character I/O does not.
D.Character I/O goes through the buffer cache and block I/O does not.
E.Block I/O is for large data transfers only and character I/O is for small data transferd only.
Correct:C

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NO.9 How does root allow an ordinary user to add/remove printers in SAM?
A.not possible
B.edit sam.allow
C.set the UID bit
D.establish a restricted build
Correct:D

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NO.10 What could possibly solve a paging problem?
A.add more NICs
B.add more CPUs
C.add more memory
D.add more internal disks
E.increase swap space
Correct:C

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NO.11 Place the steps to install a fibre channel card in the correct order.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.12 In which directory does HP-UX supply default templates for the user startup files?
A./usr/home
B./etc/skel
C./home/template
D./etc/tmp
Correct:B

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NO.13 You attempt to unmount a file system, /mydata, and get an error stating "device busy". How do
you determine the cause?
A.showmount -a
B.fuser -uc /mydata
C.showmount /mydata
D.mount -v /mydata
E.cat /etc/mnttab
Correct:B

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NO.14 How do you set up a device swap area and ensure it is active at each system startup?
A.Start device swapping using the swapon command on an existing file system mount point.
B.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/fstab
file.
C.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/sbtab
file.
D.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/vfstab
file.
Correct:B

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NO.15 What do physical volume links (pv links) provide?
A.access to a spare disk
B.automatic load balancing
C.an alternate path to a disk
D.improved RAID performance
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which file does an HP-UX administrator edit to turn the bootp daemon on at boot?
A./etc/bootp
B./etc/inetd.conf
C./etc/rc.config.d/netconf
D./etc/rc.config.d/netdaemon
Correct:B

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NO.17 During a run-state change from run level 1 to run level 2 , which script would be run last?
A./sbin/rc2.d/K900nfs.server
B./sbin/rc2.d/S500inetd
C./sbin/rc2.d/S430nfs.client
D./sbin/rc2.d/K200tps.rc
E./sbin/rc2.d/S620xfs
Correct:E

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NO.18 Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A.mkdevice
B.insf
C.fsadm
D.mksf
E.devstart
Correct:B D

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NO.19 Which statement is true regarding a device file's major number?
A.It is determined by its hardware address.
B.It points to the associated kernel driver.
C.It is used to allocate buffer space.
D.It determines the device's interrupt priority.
E.It sets the kernel response timeout in tics.
Correct:B

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NO.20 Which command is used to recreate the /stand/system file?
A.system_prep
B.mkkernal
C.vi system
D.frecover
E.sysgen
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S15
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.2 What do you need to access the Onboard Administrator for a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure
remotely? (Select two.)
A.a standard USB cable
B.an RS-232 serial cable
C.a compatible web browser
D.a terminal emulation program
E.the Onboard Administrator IP address
Correct:C E

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NO.3 What is used by Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) to improve security? (Select two.)
A.XML scripting
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.Virtual password store
D.Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
E.Secure Task Execution (STE)
Correct:B D

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NO.4 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.5 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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NO.6 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which feature in Intelligent Networking Pack (INP) allows the creation of groups inside a single
team, where each group is assigned one or more teamed ports?
A.fast path failover
B.router path failover
C.dual channel teaming
D.dual channel load balancing
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.9 What can be imported into the System Management Homepage to increase security?
A.local server certificate
B.encrypted password file
C.Secure Shell (SSH) public key
D.128bit RC4 encryption license
Correct:A

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NO.10 What action does HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) take when a blade server is identified
through another system in the same rack or enclosure?
A.The system is catalogued to be polled during the next discovery task
B.Associations are made between the blade server operating system to the next blade server operating
system using the Interconnect ID.
C.Associations are made between the iLO and the enclosure in which the system resides.
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) requests all relevant information about the blade server to the
HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.11 When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?
A.Create a password for root in SMH.
B.Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C.Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D.Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on
hardware configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant
Support Pack?
A.HP Control Tower
B.HP System Management Homepage
C.HP Performance Management agents
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Correct:B

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NO.13 When looking into HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM), an administrator detects an issue
with a c-Class server blade. However, in the Onboard Administrator, everything looks fine. What
could be the reason?
A.The Onboard Administrator is running in a different VLAN than the HP SIM server.
B.The c-Class server blades are running an older version of the HP management agents.
C.The Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the blades.
D.The management link between the c-Class server blades and the Onboard Administrator is not
configured.
Correct:C

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NO.14 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.15 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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NO.16 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.17 What is downloaded from an HP website when updating the patch database used by
Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM)?
A.updated VPM software, if available
B.latest patches from different vendors
C.latest vulnerability scan definition files
D.newer version of the Radia patch agent, if available
Correct:C

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NO.18 What is the recommended method of configuring the access security control between HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and the System Management Homepage (SMH)?
A.configure trust by name in HP SIM
B.configure trust by certificate in the SMH
C.import the SSH private key generated by HP SIM into SMH
D.synchronize the password files between SMH and HP SIM
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?
A.HP standard design
B.variation of an HP standard design
C.flexible design using HP standard design
D.custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking
devices such as routers, bridges and switches?
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M21
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Universal Configuration Management Database Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 You navigate to the topology map and notice that there are no labels to the CIs. What might be the
reason for this?
A. The Map overview option is selected.
B. The Hide All Relationship option is selected.
C. The Hide All Node Labels option is selected.
D. The Hide All Relationship Labels option is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the domain scope?
A. A set of IP Addresses that contains credential information
B. All the IPs that the probe can access to
C. The Probe's IP
D. The User's network Domain
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the "Refresh View" menu item used for?
A. to update the information in the IT Universe Manager
B. to update the information in the view explorer
C. to rebuild the view
D. to refresh the browser
Answer: B

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NO.4 What protocol(s) are used to discover J2EE environments?
A. JMX
B. JDBC and WMI
C. SNMP or WMI
D. JMX and ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a topology map?
A. a manager used to create and organize views
B. a graphical representation of a subset of the CMDB
C. the editing pane where views are created
D. a list representation of a subset of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the correct statement with regard to "Filter Related in DB"?
A. Displays the related CIs from the current view
B. Displays the related CIs from the entire CMDB
C. Displays specific types of related CIs from the current view
D. Displays specific types of related CIs from the entire CMDB
Answer: D

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NO.7 What pattern is used for discovering IP's?
A. ICMP
B. WMI
C. SNMP
D. JMX
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many sets of credential per protocol are allowed?
A. Only one
B. Many
C. At least one
D. Maximum two
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the "View Sublayer" context menu used for?
A. to include the CI Type instances and instances of all subtypes in the view
B. to attach new related CI
C. to view child CIs without navigating away from the present layer
D. to view parent CIs without navigating away from the present layer
Answer: C

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NO.10 What would you see in a Topology map if you set the "Number of Hops" to 4?
A. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or fewer links
B. CIs that are directly related to the selected CI
C. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or more links
D. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by three or fewer links
Answer: A

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NO.11 How do you navigate between layers?
A. by double-clicking on the Related in View in Related CIs tab
B. by double-clicking on the Navigation button in the menu bar
C. by selecting a layout from the Layout menu in the menu bar
D. by double-clicking on the down arrow and the green up arrow
Answer: D

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NO.12 What types of information can be derived using Discovery?
A. Config files, reading records from another system, looking at network data
B. Config files ,OS and DB tables C. All network device
D. All In-house and network software and hardware
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which layer(s) does Discovery support or extract information from?
A. Layers 2 through 7
B. Only layers 2 and 7
C. Layer 7 only (application)
D. Layers 2,5 and 7
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which is not part of a package?
A. Class definitions (XML)
B. TQL and Views
C. Reports, Correlations and Enrichments
D. Protocols and credentials
Answer: D

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NO.15 When are view parameters created?
A. when the TQL is created
B. when the view is created
C. when the TQL is calculated
D. when the view is calculated
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is a script used for?
A. It is a part of the pattern and contains the connection code to connect to infrastructure resources and
request information
B. It is used for the TQL for triggered list
C. It is used for the TQL command lines
D. It is the code used for finding the result in the uCMDB
Answer: A

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NO.17 You want to add a new CI to the view in the Topology View. Which are the possible actions you may
take?
A. Insert CI and Insert View
B. Insert View and Insert Related CI
C. Insert CI and Insert Related CI D. Insert View only
Answer: C

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NO.18 Where would you edit the attribute value of a CI?
A. on the Related CIs page of IT Universe Manager
B. on the Topology Map page of IT Universe Manager
C. on the Properties page of IT Universe Manager
D. on the Properties page of View Manager
Answer: C

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NO.19 What information do patterns store?
A. CIs and relationships to be created, Discovery Protocols, Parameters and scripts
B. Destination list and Protocols and triggered CIs
C. Only credentials
D. Scripts and UCMDB connection
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which three components comprise a discovery task?
A. User, server and pattern
B. Server, DB and probe
C. Pattern, script and credentials
D. DB, pattern and protocol
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-714
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 The HP OpenViwe Storage Area Manager Setup Assistant is available ____.
A. from the Tools Menu within the management client
B. from the command line on the management server
C. automatically, immediately after management server installation
D. automatically, after the management server is rebooted after installation
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why is it important to make sure that LUNs are physically and logically to an
organization by adding them to an account?
A. Te LUNs will not show up as assigned
B. LUNs will be removed from the pool of available resources.
C. Organizations can be charged for LUNs that they cannot use.
D. Usage information will be collected and no organization will be charged.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three features are provided by the HP Open View Storage Area Manager device
maps? (Choose three.)
A. displays integration status with other applications
B. provides graphical display of device and link status
C. provide charting capabilities for reporting on devices
D. displays collections of discovered devices in a topology
E. provides a launching point for device management applications
Answer: B.D.E

NO.4 What is the purpose of a passphrase?
A. is used by Device Plug-ins (DPI) to obtain information about the device
B. allows communication of third-party applications to the HP OpenView SAM Bridge service
C. allows communication between the management server and management clients that use
DHCP
D. authorizes communication between the management server and manager-of-Managers (MoM)
clients
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can passphrases be entered?
A. right-click the device and select Configure Passphrases
B. from the Tools Configuration Menu, select Configure Passphrases
C. from th propertied page for device, select Configure Passphrases
D. edit the passphrases cfg file and enter the device name and passphrase
Answer: A

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NO.6 Application links in HP OpenView Storage Area Manager can be linked to ____.(Choose
three.)
A. a device class
B. the Tools Menu
C. a specific device
D. the Resource tree
E. the Application tree
Answer: A.B.C

NO.7 In order for HP Open View Storage Area Manaher to discover an HP Storage Works EVA
Array, an entry is needed in the ___panel of the Configuration window.
A. Proxy Devices
B. Management Appliances
C. Additional Storage Arrays
D. SNMP Discovery Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.8 When using associated LUN groups. If a requested assignment is unsuccessful for any
LUN in the group. When happens to the operation?
A. if fails for the entire group.
B. If fails for the individul logical unit.
C. It continues with an error message.
D. It prompt the user to continue or roll back the assignment.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Organization are common to which two HP OpenView Storage Area Manager
applications? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Builder
B. Storage Allocator
C. Storage Optimizer
D. Storage Accountant
E. Storage Node Manager
Answer: A.D

NO.10 Which two statements are true about HP OpenView Storage Area manager Arbitrary
folders? (Choose two.)
A. they support nesting
B. they are visible from the Applications tree
C. they enable thresholds to be set on groups of resources
D. they are exclusive (a member can only belong to one folder).
Answer: A.D

NO.11 Which fibre channel switch display inactive zones in HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager?
A. Cisco
B. McData
C. Brocade
D. All switches
Answer: C

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NO.12 From the HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Custom Setup screen, you can select the
___.(Choose three.)
A. OS depots to install
B. Feature (applications) to install
C. Directory to install OS depot files
D. Directory to install hostagent files
E. Directory to install the management server files
Answer: A.B.E

NO.13 To which three file formats can HP OpenView Storage Accountant customer billing
information be exported? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .csv
C. .xml
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B.C.E

NO.14 Exhibit, Mapped Devices (Physical Map)
What are two possible causes for the status change of the HP AstorageWorks Virtual
Array on the MAP shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The array is powered off.
B. A disk has failed in the array.
C. One of the redundant controllers has failed.
D. One of he redundant controllers has failed
E. The only host connected to the array is turned off.
Answer: A.E

NO.15 Which two statements are true about adding a new license to HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. it requires an HP order number.
B. It requires an internet connection
C. It uses the Auto Pass application.
D. It can be accomplished from any management client.
Answer: A.C

NO.16 How can HP OpenView Storage Allocator be activated? (Choose three.)
A. locally via CD-ROM
B. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Setup Assistant
C. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Activation Wizard
D. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Setup Assistan
E. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Agent Activation Wizard
Answer: A.C.D

NO.17 HP Open View Storage Aliocater Associated LUN Groups assigns____.
A. LUNs individually
B. LUNs to multiple hosts
C. Several LUNs as a unit
D. Individual LUNs from within the group
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements about the HP OpenView Storage Allocator Special Unassign
command are true? (Choose two.)
A. when the command runs. It will try a regular unassignment first.
B. when the command runs. All affected hosts will be rebooted automatically
C. when the command runs. An event will be generated for each host that needs to be rebooted.
D. The Special Unassign command is available for all HP OpenView Storage Allocator
supported host operating systems.
Answer: A.C

NO.19 What is required to associate a price to a LUN in HP OpenView Storage Accountant?
A. assign the LUN and the to an account
B. create a service level and add the LUN to an account
C. create a billing cycle with a price associated with the LUN
D. create a service level and assign the LUN to the service level
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is recommended as an enhancement to HP OpenView Storage Allocater security
because it prevents the accidental attachment of a host without a storage
Allocater-activated Host Agent?
A. soft zoning
B. hard zoning
C. secure manager
D. individual port control
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M25
Nom d'Examen: HP (Assessing Web Application Security )
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 By default, what are the three response codes that would halt a scan on the first request?
A.404, 407, 502
B.200, 302, 404
C.304, 302, 500
D.403, 404, 500
Answer:A

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NO.2 After completing a Crawl-Only scan and clicking on the Audit button, which scan policy will be used?
A.the policy selected by the user on-screen
B.the policy listed in the Default Scan Settings
C.the policy specified in the Application Settings
D.the policy specified in the Current Scan Settings
Answer:A

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NO.3 How do you initiate the WebInspect Command Line?
A.via the wi.exe program
B.via the WebInspect toolkit
C.via the scheduler.exe program
D.via the Advanced Assessment panel
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the role of the "Web Form Values" file?
A.The WebForm Values file is part of the standard policy.
B.The WebForm Values file is generated during a scan to capture test parameters used during the scan.
C.The WebForm Values file contains parameter names and provides static values to be submitted when
testing webforms.
D.The WebForm Values file is used to establish and maintain "state" with the application by monitoring
webform authentication methods.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which policy focuses on auditing the functionality of the Web Application only?
A.Standard policy
B.Application policy
C.Web Service policy
D.Web Application policy
Answer:B

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NO.6 What are some uses of regular expressions in WebInspect? Select two.
A.They are used for response filtering and may be customized.
B.They are used for filtering the vulnerabilities in the Dashboard.
C.They are used for detecting the logout signature in a Login Macro.
D.They are used for defect reporting when WebInspect is linked to Quality Center.
E.They are used to group vulnerabilities in the Vulnerabilities tab in the Summary pane.
Answer:A C

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NO.7 Which option best describes a Manual Crawl (Step Mode) scan?
A.This scan spiders the website, discovering all links and pages therein.
B.This scan forces the user to provide all of the site pages by hand via their browser while the audit
performs attacks.
C.This scan discovers links/pages while attacking the same pages, running with multiple threads. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
D.This scan fully discovers the site structure first, followed by a phase of attacks of the same pages. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which statement best describes SmartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate is the process that delivers WebInspect Messages to the bottom of the Home tab.
B.SmartUpdate is the feature that sends False Positives (FP) to the HP Support team as quality feedback.
C.SmartUpdate is a process that retrieves updates to the local vulnerability database and any
WebInspect binary updates.
D.SmartUpdate automatically omits security checks whose specified server/application type does not
match the current targets server/application fingerprint.
Answer:C

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NO.9 What are the Network Authentication techniques supported by WebInspect? (Select three.)
A.NTLM
B.Kerberos
C.htaccess
D.Cybersafe
E.HTTP Basic
F.Retinal Scan
Answer:A B E

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NO.10 How do you promote vulnerabilities into defect tracking in Quality Center?
A.Use AMP integration.
B.Use the WebInspect Command Line utility.
C.Click the Quality Center icon on the toolbar.
D.Right-click the vulnerability in the Vulnerability Pane.
Answer:D

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NO.11 Click the Task button. Match the tools listed in the blue boxes beside the correct purpose. When
finished, click the Done button to submit your answer. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer
Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.12 Which is a valid option for Log File Purge settings under Application Settings?
A.Purge When Exit
B.By Total Scan Size
C.By Log File Number
D.Purge on SmartUpdate
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which regular expression best matches the string 345-12-9876?
A.\d
B.\d*.$
C.\d{3-2-4}
D.\d{3}-\d{2}-\d{4}
Answer:D

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NO.14 What is a logout signature?
A.a snapshot of the session state found when the user has lost session state
B.a regular expression used to identify those responses that indicate session state has been lost
C.the toolbar feature in Web Macro Recorder which automatically determines the macros regular
expression
D.a user-supplied keyword that will be inserted into the WebInspect scan data to indicate each response
where a logout occurred
Answer:B

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NO.15 What is the difference between a Login Macro and a Start Macro? Select two.
A.The Start Macro will run any time state needs to be re-established.
B.The Start Macro is used to populate the assessment with known URLs.
C.The Login Macro runs any time a page response matches its logout signature.
D.The Login Macro only runs once to gain session state at the beginning of the assessment.
E.The Start Macro is the Login Macro being forced to run once at the beginning of the assessment.
Answer:B C

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NO.16 Which tool is used to create and edit the Web Form Values file?
A.HTML Editor
B.HTTP Editor
C.Web Form Editor
D.WebInspect Form Wizard
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which statement best describes the Request Retry Count function?
A.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait for a response.
B.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait before re-requesting the same, non-responsive
page.
C.The Request Retry Count indicates how many times to attempt a request before marking it as a null
response.
D.The Request Retry Count indicates how much time WebInspect will spend on a request before marking
the requested page as a null response.
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which tool will you use to create a filter that can help identify every instance of a 302 redirection while
browsing the web application?
A.Web Proxy
B.SQL Injector
C.HTTP Injector
D.Web Browser
Answer:A

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NO.19 In the WebInspect GUI, where can you find a full description of a discovered vulnerability?
A.within the Host info
B.within the Session info
C.within the Summary pane
D.within the Compliance Manager
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which macro option will play and then start the scan off at its last recorded session, and none of the
earlier sessions will be crawled and audited?
A.Start Macro
B.Login Macro
C.Logout Macro
D.Use macro for entry
Answer:D

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