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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-031
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9i database:fundamentals i)
Questions et réponses: 172 Q&As

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NO.1 In your database, you observe that a database user is executing a lot of CPU-intensive queries,
thereby causing the database performance to degrade. You want to restrict the resource utilization of that
user without affecting other database users. Which two options can you use? (Choose two.)
A. start the database in QUIESCED mode
B. use the Database Resource Manager to prioritize CPU usage
C. grant the RESTRICTED SESSION system privilege to the user
D. create a profile with resource restriction and assign it to the user
E. create a database trigger to monitor user queries and to terminate the user session if the CPU usage
exceeds a threshold value
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You intend to use only password authentication and have used the password file utility to create a
password file as follows:
$orapwd file=$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/orapwDB01 password=orapass entries=5 The
REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter is set to NONE. You created a user and
granted only the SYSDBA privilege to that user as follows:
CREATE USER dba_user IDENTIFIED BY dba_pass; GRANT sysdba TO dba_user; The user attempts
to connect to the database as follows: connect dba_user/dba_pass as sysdba; Why does the connection
fail?
A. The DBA privilege was not granted to dba_user.
B. REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is not set to EXCLUSIVE.
C. The password file has been created in the wrong directory.
D. The user did not specify the password orapass to connect as SYSDBA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In your initialization parameter file, the RESOURCE_LIMIT parameter is set to FALSE. The database
users have a profile that contains both password and resource restrictions. What is the impact of this
parameter setting on the sessions of the database users?
A. All profile restrictions are effective for the sessions.
B. None of the profile restrictions are effective for the sessions.
C. Only the password restrictions are effective for the sessions.
D. No sessions can be created because the parameter is set to False.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-031   1Z0-031 examen   1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.4 Which statement regarding the creation of a dictionary-managed tablespace is true?
A. You cannot set the tablespace for NOLOGGING mode.
B. You can set segment space management clause to auto.
C. You can specify default storage for dictionary-managed tablespaces.
D. You cannot specify default storage for a tablespace that consists of an autoextensible data file.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a password for a specified time
interval?
A. Account Locking
B. Password History
C. Password Verification
D. Password Expiration and Aging
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process is started when a user connects to the Oracle server in a dedicated server mode?
A. DBWn
B. PMON
C. SMON
D. Server
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-031   certification 1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.7 Which three statements regarding an extent are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can belong to multiple segments.
B. It is a set of contiguous data blocks.
C. It can be allocated manually to a segment.
D. It may be deallocated when a table is truncated.
E. It is allocated when a new column without a DEFAULT value is added to a table.
Answer: BCD

Oracle   certification 1Z0-031   certification 1Z0-031   1Z0-031 examen   1Z0-031

NO.8 You plan to enable user tracing in your database. You changed the value of the SQL_TRACE
parameter to TRUE in the initialization parameter file and restarted the database. Which statement is true
in this scenario?
A. A trace file created at the time of creating the database is used and updated.
B. A trace file is created every time the database starts up and is common to all the sessions.
C. A trace file is created for every schema and is common to all the sessions connected to that schema.
D. A trace file is created for every new session and is updated whenever a SQL statement is executed in
that session.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-031   1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.9 Which are considered types of segments?
A. only LOBs
B. only nested tables
C. only index-organized tables
D. only LOBs and index-organized tables
E. only nested tables and index-organized tables
F. only LOBs, nested tables, and index-organized tables
G. nested tables, LOBs, index-organized tables, and boot straps
Answer: G

Oracle   1Z0-031   1Z0-031 examen

NO.10 In which situation should the control file be backed up?
A. when a checkpoint occurs
B. when you create a new schema
C. when you add a data file to a tablespace
D. when you execute any transactional control command
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.11 An INSERT statement failed and is rolled back. What does this demonstrate?
A. insert recovery
B. read consistency
C. transaction recovery
D. transaction rollback
Answer: D

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NO.12 You created the password file in your database server as follows: $ orapwd
file=$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/orapwdb password=dba entries=2 Further, you granted the SYSDBA
privilege to the user SCOTT who has TIGER as the password. What effect would the assigning of this
privilege have on Scott's password?
A. The password will not be effected and remain as TIGER.
B. The password will change from TIGER to DBA.
C. The password will be DBA when he connects as SYSDBA, and he can use either TIGER or DBA when
connecting asa normal user.
D. The password will be DBA when SCOTT connects as SYSDBA, and TIGER when connecting as a
normal user.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Examine these statements: 1) MOUNT mounts the database for certain DBA activities but does not
provide user access to the database. 2) The NOMOUNT command creates only the Data Buffer but does
not provide access to the database. 3 ) The OPEN command enables users to access the database. 4)
The STARTUP command starts an instance.
Which option correctly describes whether some or all of the statements are TRUE or FALSE?
A. 2 and 3 areTRUE
B. 1 and 3 areTRUE
C. 1 is TRUE, 4 is FALSE
D. 1 is FALSE, 4 is TRUE
E. 1 is FALSE, 3 is TRUE F. 2 is FALSE, 4 is FALSE
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-031   1Z0-031 examen   1Z0-031
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NO.14 When an Oracle instance is started, background processes are started. Background processes
perform which twofunctions? (Choose two.)
A. perform I/O
B. lock rows that are not data dictionary rows
C. monitor other Oracle processes
D. connect users to the Oracle instance
E. execute SQL statements issued through an application
Answer: AC

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NO.15 ABC Company consolidated into one office building, so the very large EMPLOYEES table no longer
requires the
OFFICE_LOCATION column. The DBA decided to drop the column using the syntax below: ALTER
TABLE hr.employees DROP COLUMN building_location CASCADE CONSTRAINTS;
Dropping this column has turned out to be very time consuming and is requiring a large amount of undo
space. What could the DBA have done to minimize the problem regarding time and undo space
consumption?
A. Use the Export and Import utilities to bypass undo.
B. Mark the column as UNUSED. Remove the column at a later time when less activity is on the system.
C. Drop all indexes and constraints associated with the column prior to dropping the column.
D. Mark the column INVALID prior to beginning the drop to bypass undo. Remove the column using the
DROP UNUSED COLUMNS command.
E. Add a checkpoint to the DROP UNUSED COLUMNS command to minimize undo space.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which command can you use to display the date and time in the form 17:45:01 JUL-12-2000 using the
default US7ASCII character set?
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
B. ALTER SESSION SET DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
C. ALTER SESSION SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
D. ALTER SYSTEM SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which constraint state prevents new data that violates the constraint from being entered, but allows
invalid data toexist in the table?
A. ENABLE VALIDATE
B. DISABLE VALIDATE
C. ENABLE NOVALIDATE
D. DISABLE NOVALIDATE
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements are true regarding temporary data files (temp files) in locally managed
temporary tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. Temp files are always set to NOLOGGING mode.
B. It is possible to rename temp files.
C. Temp files can be created by the ALTER DATABASE command.
D. Temp files are required for read-only databases.
E. Temp files can be made read only.
Answer: AD

Oracle   1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.19 You created a tablespace SH_TBS. The tablespace consists of two data files: sh_tbs_data1.dbf and
sh_tbs_data2.dbf.You created a nonpartitioned table SALES_DET in the SH_TBS tablespace. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The data segment is created as soon as the table is created.
B. The data segment is created when the first row in the table is inserted.
C. You can specify the name of the data file where the data segment should be stored.
D. The header block of the data segment contains a directory of the extents in the segment.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Your database is currently configured with the database character set to WE8ISO8859P1 and
national character set toAL16UTF16.Business requirements dictate the need to expand language
requirements beyond the current character set, for Asian and additional Western European languages, in
the form of customer names and addresses. Which solution saves space storing Asian characters and
maintains consistent character manipulation performance?
A. Use SQL CHAR data types and change the database character set to UTF8.
B. Use SQL NCHAR data types and change the national character set to UTF8.
C. Use SQL CHAR data types and change the database character set to AL32UTF8.
D. Use SQL NCHAR data types and keep the national character set to AL16UTF16.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-020
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle8l:new features for administrators)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Which parameter would you use to set up archiving to a remote machine?
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST
B. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2
C. LOG_ARCHIVE_REMOTE_DEST
D. ARCHIVE_REMOTE_DEST
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Dimensions are based on summaries.
B. The ALTER MATERIALIZED VIEW CONSIDER FRESH statement directs Oracle to consider the
materialized view fresh, and therefore eligible for query rewrite in the TRUSTED or STALE_TOLERATED
mode only.
C. Summaries without dimensions are used for faster aggregation.
D. Additional query rewrites at a higher level of aggregation can take place if summaries are created at
the lowest level of aggregation.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 You set the PARALLEL_AUTOMATIC_TUNING initialization parameter to FALSE. What happens?
(Choose two)
A. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the large pool.
B. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the shared pool.
C. Only tables with a degree of parallelism specified will be scanned in parallel.
D. A load balancing algorithm will be used to distribute evenly load across nodes in a multi instance PQ
environment.
Answer: BC

Oracle   1Z0-020   1Z0-020   1Z0-020   1Z0-020

NO.4 Which two options are valid for LOBs during their creation? (Choose two)
A. REDO
B. NOREDO
C. LOGGING
D. NOLOGGING
E. RECOVERABLE
F. UNRECEOVERABLE
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Examine this command:ALTER SYSTEM SET USESTORED_OUTLINE = TRUE; Which outline
category will be used?
A. SYS
B. OUTLINE
C. TRUE
D. DEFAULT
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tablespace stores the segment of a temporary table?
A. The default tablespace for user SYS.
B. The temporary tablespace for user SYS.
C. The default tablespace for the current user.
D. The temporary tablespace for the current user.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-020   1Z0-020 examen   1Z0-020 examen

NO.7 What can you see when querying V$LOGMNR_CONTENTS?
A. The SQL statement run and the old image.
B. The SQL statement run, and the new image.
C. Only the redo generated by the current schema.
D. The SQL statement run, and the relevant undo SQL statement.
E. The old image and the new image of the row that was modified.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-020   1Z0-020   1Z0-020
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NO.8 Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Composite partitioning supports local indexes.
B. Composite partitioning supports hash-partitioned global indexes.
C. Composite partitioning supports range-partitioned global indexes
D. Composite partitioning supports composite-partitioned global indexes.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which tool, integrated with Oracle universal installer, can be used by third-party vendors to install their
products as art of an Oracle installation?
A. Oracle Software Packager.
B. Java Run-Time environment.
C. Database migration assistant.
D. Optimal flexible architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two factors can influence the time taken for instance recovery? (Choose two)
A. Size of the redo log buffer.
B. Value of FAST_START_TO_TARGET
C. Size of the system tablespace.
D. Value of RECOVERY_PARALLELISM
E. The number of archived redo logs that have to be read.
F. The number of tables stored in the database buffer cache at the moment of failure.
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-264
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Hyperion Essbase Analytics 9.3 Developer)
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit. The outline shown in the exhibit is an example of:
A.Fiscal year crossover time design
B.Generic time design
C.Scenario-based time design
Correct:B

Oracle   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264

NO.2 Which options are available to manipulate fields in Data Prep Editor?
A.Create using text, Delete, and Move
B.Create using join, Split, and Copy
C.Join, Move, and Split
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264

NO.3 View the Exhibit. What terminology best describes the member Act Vs Bud in the Scenario
dimension shown here?
A.Sibling of Act Vs Fcst, descendant of Scenario, leaf node, generation 3 member
B.Descendant of Scenario Variances, root member, sibling of Act Vs Fcst, generation 3 member
C.Level 0 member, child of Scenario Variances, generation 4 member, sibling of Bud Vs Fcst
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264

NO.4 During a CALC ALL or CALC DIM process, Analytic Services calculates sparse and dense
dimensions in a specific sequence. What makes the default calculation sequence so efficient?
A.Analytic Services calculates interior block calculations in existing blocks before creating more data
blocks
B.Analytic Services creates all possible data blocks before calculating accounts data
C.Analytic Services creates data blocks in top-down order
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264

NO.5 Which of the following characterizes the top member in an alternate hierarchy?
A.Generation 1 member
B.Marked label only
C.Marked excluded from consolidation (~)
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264   1Z0-264

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-605
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Siebel7.7 Business Analyst Core Exam)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 If hyperlinks in Siebel Tools do not appear, what might the problem be?
A. The Drilldown Add-in has not been installed
B. The Web update protection key is invalid
C. Tools is not properly connected to the datasource
D. You do not have the Developer responsibility
Answer: D

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NO.2 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Siebel Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
B. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
C. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
D. Dynamically generates database-specific SQL statements in response to Object Manager requests
Answer: C

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NO.3 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Increase sales by 10% in Q3
B. Decrease turnover company-wide
C. Ensure customer ratings of 7.5 or greater within 6 months
D. Provide sales personnel with access to all accounts in their region
E. Add maiden name field to all account detail screens
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Limiting data displayed in the My Opportunities view to opportunities associated with a job role within
the organization is an example of what?
A. Opportunities associated with their user ID
B. Opportunities for which they are the primary
C. Opportunities associated with their position
D. Opportunities that they created
Answer: C

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NO.5 When a user does not have access to any views in a screen, which is true?
A. Neither the screen tab nor the Site Menu option is displayed
B. The views are listed only on the Site Map
C. The views are only accessible through a drilldown
D. The Screen containing the views is empty
Answer: A

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NO.6 If you need to edit your company structure in the Siebel application, which of the following are you able
to do? Choose two.
A. Change the name of an organization
B. Remove an organization
C. Delete a division
D. Change a division's organization
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which statement about views and responsibilities is true?
A. Each responsibility assigned to a user must have entirely separate views assigned
B. A Manager responsibility and User responsibility may share views
C. Manager and User responsibilities will have completely different views
D. Users have access to the views associated with only one responsibility at a time
Answer: B

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NO.8 What effect does considering the change management implication have on an implementation?
A. Positively affects user adoption and long-term net benefits
B. Dramatically shortens implementation time
C. Significantly reduces the cost of implementation
D. Reduces the number of people required to work on the implementation
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-605   1Z0-605   1Z0-605

NO.9 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the Contact business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Child business component
B. Business object
C. Grandchild business component
D. Parent business component
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-605   1Z0-605

NO.10 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the three most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Decrease revenue losses by 30% within two quarters
B. Add four additional customers each month for the first year
C. Change the color of all screens in the application to match the company color scheme
D. Increase customer survey responses by 5% with each survey
E. Increase customer loyalty in the south region
Answer: ABD

Oracle examen   1Z0-605 examen   1Z0-605   1Z0-605

NO.11 When determining how to best control access to data, the Business Analyst must have an
understanding of the differences between master data and customer data.Which are examples of master
data? Choose two.
A. Literature
B. Products
C. Contacts
D. Accounts
Answer: AB

Oracle   1Z0-605   1Z0-605 examen

NO.12 A business analyst must understand the integration options available to identify the most appropriate
solution for the customer.Your customer has a large number of systems that need to be integrated with
one another. They have been struggling with their integration because all of the systems have slightly
different data structures. Now they are adding Siebel applications to their enterprise and are becoming
overwhelmed with the challenge of integrating all of their systems. Which solution would you recommend
to your customer?
A. Use EAI to bring all of the data from all of the systems into the Siebel application
B. Use an Integration Server to connect the systems
C. Create a peer-to-peer connection between each system
D. Run a batch process every night to get all data into the Siebel application and then peer-to-peer to all
other systems
Answer: B

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NO.13 Properly planning and conducting business process workshops is a critical element of the Business
Analyst role.Which is NOT a valid part of the questioning framework for a business process workshop?
A. Verifying that the process meets the customer's needs
B. Using the Siebel application demonstration as the primary enabler of the process
C. Confirming that the process supports the stated business objectives
D. Verifying that the steps in the process reflect the customer's activities
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your customer has a number of legacy systems that work differently from the Siebel application. How
would you determine, and show your customer, whether it is best to modify the Siebel application or
modify the customer's current business processes?
A. Leave the decision entirely up to your customer
B. Explain that the Siebel application should never be modified
C. Perform a cost-benefit analysis to decide which approach is best
D. Examine the available development resources to see if the work can be done before the project
deadline
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-605   1Z0-605   1Z0-605

NO.15 Which is a hosted solution that provides core functionality to casual users, business partners, and
remote divisions?
A. Siebel CRM Enterprise
B. Siebel CRM Professional Edition
C. Siebel CRM OnDemand
D. Siebel Analytics
Answer: C

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NO.16 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Enterprise Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
B. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
C. Controls server components running on a machine
D. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-605   certification 1Z0-605   1Z0-605 examen

NO.17 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the parent business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Contact
B. Account Entry
C. Account
D. Account Detail
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-605   certification 1Z0-605   1Z0-605

NO.18 The business analyst must consider the functional dependencies of the functionalities being
implemented to determine how implementations should be phased. Based on functional dependence,
which functionality would be implemented first?
A. Fulfillment
B. Orders
C. Quotes
D. Opportunities
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-605   certification 1Z0-605

NO.19 Which statement is true about access to views and data?
A. Users with the same responsibility have the same view and data access
B. View access for a responsibility in one organization will be different in another organization
C. View access and data access are completely independent of one another
D. User ID, position, and responsibility control access to data
Answer: C

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NO.20 On an implementation project, there are strong indicators from the organization that implementing the
new application will meet resistance. You fear that this may impact the success of your project. Which
element of your project will most directly address this issue?
A. Superior technology
B. Change management
C. Business processes
D. Technical support
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-204
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12: E-Business Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 199 Q&As

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NO.1 ABC Corp. is installing Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications on two nodes: A and B. On
Node A, it has installed the Form server, the Web server, and the Administration server. On Node B, it has
installed the Concurrent Processing server. By default, on which node would the Reports server be
installed?
A.Node A
B.Node B
C.neither of the nodes
D.both Node A and Node B
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify the Flexfield that can be used as an individual parameter and as a parameter range in the
Oracle Web Applications Desktop Integrator.
A.Key Flexfield
B.Range Flexfield
C.GL Ledger Flexfield
D.Descriptive Flexfield
E.Account Aliases Flexfield
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.3 You can enter and view dates in any valid format in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. You can also
enter and view numbers with either the period (full stop) character or comma as the decimal separator.
Regardless of the various formats that can be used to enter dates and numbers, the actual values are
stored in the database in the _____.
A.UTF8 format
B.ASCII format
C.US7ASCII character set
D.Standard number format
E.Uniform canonical format
Answer: E

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NO.4 You are involved in a project to upgrade to Oracle E-Business Suite, Release 12. You need more
information about the upgrade processes and paths.
Where would you find the upgrade guide for Oracle E-Business Suite?
A.AppsNet
B.Bug Database
C.Technical Forums
D.MetaLink Knowledge Base
E.Oracle Technology Network
F.Customer Knowledge Exchange
Answer: D

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NO.5 Paul wants to log in to Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. Identify the first server to which his
request would go.
A.Web Server
B.Reports Server
C.Administration Server
D.Concurrent Processing Server
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204

NO.6 The technical architecture in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the
application. Select three business principles that drive the business architecture in Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.global
B.mobile interface
C.Business Intelligence
D.rapid implementation
E.end-to-end integration
F.self-service (HTML/JSPs)
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.7 You are the manufacturing lead for XYZ's implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12.
Your client has these requirements:
1.Create a production plan.
2>Analyze Sales Order information.

NO.8 Which three major application product families are included in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release
12 footprint? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Workflow
B.Oracle Financials
C.Oracle Applications Framework
D.Oracle Applications Object Library
E.Oracle Project Management Product Suite
F.Oracle Human Resources Management System Suite
Answer: BEF

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.9 Identify three characteristics of Oracle HTML-based Applications (formerly known as Self-Service
Applications). (Choose three.)
A.use Oracle Forms for interface
B.use metadata dictionary for flexible layout
C.operate by direct connection to Web server
D.ability to re-establish dropped network connections
E.dynamically generate HTML pages by executing Java code
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is designed to assist companies meet the business challenges of
globalization. Select four features of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that support efficient
management of a global enterprise in a single database. (Choose four.)
A.has common data model
B.supports multiple currencies
C.supports multiple data models
D.supports separate legacy systems
E.supports statutory and customary local requirements
F.extends internal process support beyond enterprise boundaries
Answer: ABEF

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.11 Identify three modules that can be secured using the Operating Unit in Oracle E-Business Suite
Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Assets
B.Oracle Payables
C.Oracle Receivables
D.Oracle General Ledger
E.Oracle Cash Management
Answer: BCE

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NO.12 Identify three correct statements regarding Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.can run entirely on the Internet
B.a minimum of two modules needs to be implemented for an organization
C.is engineered to work as an integrated system on a single IT infrastructure
D.supports multidirectional flows of business information within an organization
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 It is your first day at a client site to implement Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The client wants
you to log a Service Request using MetaLink, regarding a problem with the Invoice Workbench form in
Oracle Payables.
Identify the key information that is required to initiate a Service Request for this client.
A.Error Message Number
B.Brief Problem Statement
C.Customer Support Identifier
D.Oracle Payables Patch Set level
E.Version of the Invoice Workbench form
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204

NO.14 Analyze resources, materials, costs, and job schedule progress.
Identify the two flows you would implement to accomplish these requirements. (Choose two.)
A.Click to Order
B.Order to Cash
C.Procure to Pay
D.Forecast to Plan
E.Demand to Build
Answer: DE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204
3. You receive a request to create a new responsibility for US Payables Manager. The request states that
the new responsibility should have access to all menu items except Invoice Payments.
Identify two options that you would use to restrict the Invoice Payments option on the new US Payables
Manager responsibility. (Choose two.)
A.Remove the request group from the new US Payables Manager responsibility.
B.Create a Menu Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
C.Create an Item Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
D.Create a Security Attribute for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
E.Create a new menu excluding the Invoice Payments option and attach the new menu to the
responsibility.
Answer: BE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204
4. What are the four required fields when defining a request set? (Choose four.)
A.Set
B.Owner
C.Set Code
D.Application
E.Description
F.Active Date
Answer: ACDF

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NO.15 The technical architecture in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the
application. Select three technical features included in the technical architecture in Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.global
B.mobile interface
C.rapid implementation
D.Business Intelligence
E.end-to-end integration
F.self-service (HTML/JSPs)
Answer: BDF

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.16 Identify four products in the Oracle Applications Technology Layer. (Choose four.)
A.Oracle Tutor (TU)
B.Oracle Workflow (WF)
C.Oracle Applications DBA (AD)
D.Oracle Application Utilities (AU)
E.Oracle Applications Framework (FWK)
F.Oracle Daily Business Intelligence (DBI)
Answer: BCDE

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NO.17 Calculate capacity load ratio by resource or production line.

NO.18 Which tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is responsible for storing application data?
A.Database Tier
B.Application Tier
C.Client (Desktop) Tier
D.Both Database Tier and Application Tier
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204

NO.19 Identify the four end-user features of Oracle Application Object Library that provide uniformity of
function across the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. (Choose four.)
A.custom menus
B.standard User Interface
C.Applications Online Help
D.shared Flexfield value sets
E.shared Graphical User Interface
F.Standard Report Submission (SRS)
Answer: BCDF

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NO.20 Identify two features of an "Independent" value set. (Choose two.)
A.There is a predefined list of values for a segment.
B.The values are stored in a product applications table.
C.The values are stored in an Oracle Application Object Library table.
D.You can enter a value other than those in the predefined list of values.
Answer: AC

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NO.21 Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTN) provides. (Choose four.)
A.sample codes
B.Bug Database
C.technical articles
D.product downloads
E.product documentation
F.Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)
Answer: ACDE

certification Oracle   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204

NO.22 Identify the two values that the Reporting Level parameter can have when using cross organization
reports with the Multi-Org Access Control feature. (Choose two.)
A.Ledger
B.Legal Entity
C.Operating Unit
D.Security Profile
E.Business Group
Answer: AC

Oracle examen   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.23 Identify two tasks of the Application tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications
architecture. (Choose two.)
A.process business logic
B.store business logic in the database
C.retrieve business logic from the database
D.manage communication between desktop/client tier and database tier
Answer: AD

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NO.24 Select three features of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that leverage investment in technology.
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is engineered to work as an integrated system on a common IT
infrastructure.
B.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 open standards-based architecture supports integration with
non-Oracle applications.
C.Technology support to use SQL*Plus, Oracle Data Browser, database triggers, and other tools to
modify Oracle Applications data is recommended.
D.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 has the functionality to track who has made changes to your
information when the changes are made using database tools.
E.Support for internal Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 processes extends beyond enterprise
boundaries to include customers, suppliers, and other trading partners.
Answer: ABE

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.25 Which two statements explain the role of the Desktop Tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
(Choose two.)
A.It displays the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Swan user interface.
B.It manages communication between the middle tier and the database tier.
C.It is responsible for forms displayed using Java (forms-based access) or HTML JavaScript.
D.It hosts various servers and service groups that process business logic for Oracle Applications.
E.It is responsible for storing and executing most of the business logic associated with Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12.
Answer: AC

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.26 The Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 architecture supports multiple languages. Which three
statements support the user's ability to successfully enter and view data in his or her specified language.
(Choose three.)
A.Character sets and fonts must be available on the middle tier.
B.Language support must be available on the desktop client tier.
C.Character sets and fonts must be available on the database tier.
D.The character set of the browser is set by Oracle Applications for each session.
E.The desktop browser must support character set and language-specific capabilities.
F.The responsibility profile option values provide the default National Language Support (NLS) settings for
all end users.
Answer: BDE

Oracle   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204

NO.27 Which Oracle resource would you use to log, manage, and resolve product-related issues that you
encounter in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
A.AppsNet
B.MetaLink
C.AppsWorld
D.Bug Database
E.Oracle Technology Network (OTN)
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are a workflow user in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 instance.
Identify three tasks that you can perform using Status Monitor. (Choose three.)
A.Access notification history.
B.View participant responses.
C.Reassign notifications to another user.
D.View Error information for a failed workflow.
E.Cancel a workflow that you no longer want to run.
F.View the status diagram of a subprocess for a particular workflow process.
Answer: ABF

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.29 In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, Multiple Language Support (MLS) refers to the ability to
support multiple languages in the same Oracle Application instance. Which three statements concerning
MLS are true? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is available in multiple languages.
B.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 translates all data entered by the user.
C.UTF8 is the recommended character set for installations that support multiple languages.
D.The character set you choose during installation determines which languages the instance can support.
E.The extended multilingual support present in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 data model can
increase database storage requirements.
Answer: CDE

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NO.30 Identify three features of Oracle Workflow. (Choose three)
A.enhances data security
B.helps you in maintaining business processes
C.helps you in keeping track of individual business transactions
D.starts workflow processes as a result of an inbound message
E.captures exceptions during workflow execution and takes relevant actions
F.integrates business functions only between business processes within a single Oracle E-Business Suite
instance
Answer: BDE

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-054
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 You are working on a development database that was upgraded to Oracle Database 11g from Oracle
Database 9i. An ADDM finding in this database says that the shared pool is inadequately sized, as shown
in the Exhibit.
You diagnosed that this is due to different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. You
tried to resize this by shrinking the database buffer cache but that caused inadequate buffer cache
problems. The following are the related parameter settings:
SQL> show parameter sga
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
lock_sga boolean FALSE
pre_page_sga boolean FALSE
sga_max_size big integer 300M
sga_target big integer 0
SQL> show parameter target
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
.....
fast_start_mttr_target integer 0
memory_max_target big integer 0
memory_target big integer 0
pga_aggregate_target big integer 100M
sga_target big integer 0
You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components within SGA
without affecting the size of the Program Global Area (PGA).
Which action would solve this problem?
A. Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M.
B. Set the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M.
C. Set the MEMORY_TARGET parameter to 100M.
D. Set the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter to 300M.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and
COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query.
View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.
The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual
number of rows returned from the table.
What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure.
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID
column of the CUSTOMERS table.
View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.
Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a
full table scan, even though indexes are available.
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 A user in a session executed the following SQL statement to set the optimizer mode:
ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_MODE = ALL_ROWS
What impact would it have on the goal of the optimizer for that session? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Statement level OPTIMIZER_MODE hints take precedence over the session-level setting.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter set at instance level takes precedence over the session-level
value.
C. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach, regardless of the presence of statistics; it optimizes with a
goal of best response time.
D. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach for all SQL statements in the session, regardless of the
presence of statistics; it optimizes with a goal of best throughput.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.5 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice
that estimated rows and the actual number of rows fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has
an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer's estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands and parameter settings.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline.
The first plan (in red) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to ALL_ROWS and the second plan (in
blue) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS.
Which SQL plan baseline would be used if the SQL query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of
OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A. the second plan, because it is a fixed plan
B. the first plan, because it is an accepted plan
C. the second plan, because it is the latest generated plan in FIRST_ROW mode
D. A new plan, because the second plan in FIRST_ROW mode is not an accepted plan
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 View the Exhibit and examine a portion of the output obtained from the following query:
SQL> SELECT * FROM v$sys_time_model;
Select three correct interpretations of the time model statistics. (Choose three.)
A. DB time includes the wait time of all the nonidle and idle user sessions.
B. SQL execute elapsed time includes the time spent in performing fetches of query results.
C. DB CPU includes the CPU time spent on database user-level calls and background CPU time.
D. SQL execute elapsed time includes components of the hard parse elapsed time like bind elapsed time.
E. DB time includes the connection management call elapsed time excluding the background process
time.
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.8 You plan to use adaptive thresholds as part of the performance tuning activity. You decide to increase
the window size of the default moving window baseline for all metric observations and comparisons in
your database. The following error occurs when you try to increase the window size through Enterprise
Manager:
Failed to commit: ORA-13541: system moving window baseline size (1296000) greater than retention
(1036800) ORA-06512: at "SYS.DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY", line 601 ORA-06512: at line 2
Which action would allow you to perform the preceding task successfully?
A. increasing the flashback retention period
B. increasing the retention period for SQL Management Base
C. increasing the undo retention period for the database instance
D. increasing the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.
The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS('SH','CUSTOMERS',method_opt=>'FOR ALL
INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO');
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and
CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan. What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as
compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on
the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 A batch workload that historically completed in the maintenance window between 10:00 PM and
midnight is currently showing poor performance and completing at 2 AM.
To help in the diagnosis of the performance degradation, the senior DBA in your organization asks you to
execute the awrddrpt.sql script to produce a Compare Periods report.
Which two statements are true about the report produced by this script? (Choose two.)
A. It is refreshed automatically based on the moving window baseline.
B. It compares details between any two selected time periods of the same duration.
C. It normalizes the statistics by the amount of time spent on the database for each time period.
D. It compares details between two consecutive time periods of the same or different durations and is
refreshed every 60 minutes.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.11 You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online
transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database encountered performance-related problems and
you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
What could be the problem in this database?
A.Java pool is not configured.
B.The CPU in the system is slow.
C.The shared pool size is inadequate.
D.The database buffer cache is inadequate.
E.The OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a small value.
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Identify two correct statements about the Active Session History (ASH) data. (Choose two.)
A.A part of SGA memory is used to store ASH data as rolling buffer.
B.The ASH data can be analyzed between any two small time intervals.
C.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMON in every 3 seconds.
D.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMNL process whenever the buffer is full.
ANSWER: AB

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NO.13 Which three factors influence the optimizer's behavior while choosing an optimization approach and
goal for a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A.parsing of a SQL statement
B.operating system (OS) statistics
C.object statistics in the data dictionary
D.the OPTIMIZER_MODE initialization parameter
E.optimizer SQL hints for changing the query optimizer goal
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.14 After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in the
SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL statements.
(Choose two.)
A.Running SQL Access Advisor
B.Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C.Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D.Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
ANSWER: BC

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NO.15 You observed that some of the queries are performing poorly on the SALES_RECORDS table in your
database.
On further investigation, you find that at the end of each day the contents of the SALES_RECORDS table
are transferred to the SALES table and deleted from the SALES_RECORDS table. The deleted
operations cause the table to be sparsely populated.
You decided to use the ALTER TABLE...SHRINK SPACE COMPACT command to shrink the table.
Why would you choose this method? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because it can be used during peak hours
B. because it avoids unnecessary cursor invalidation
C. because it adjusts the high-water mark (HWM) immediately
D. because you have long-running queries that might span the shrink operation
E. because it does not allow any data manipulation language (DML) operations, thereby making the
shrink
operation faster
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.16 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
The index created on the column used in the WHERE clause of the query. You notice that the query is not
using the index. Instead of an index scan, a full table scan is used.
View the Exhibit and examine the autotrace output for a query.
What could be the reason for it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter has a low value.
B. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter has a low value.
C. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
D. The table has less than DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT blocks under the high-water mark.
ANSWER: CD

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NO.17 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
You notice that the one of the queries is using a full table scan (view Exhibit1) instead of index unique
scan (view Exhibit2). The index is present on the column that is accessed in the WHERE clause of the
query. The cost for a full table scan is more than that for an index unique scan.
Why would the optimizer choose full table scan over index unique scan? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a low value.
B. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a high value.
C. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a low value.
D. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.18 The columns CUST_CITY, CUST_STATE_PROVINCE, and COUNTRY_ID are frequently used
together in the WHERE clause of the queries. The CUSTOMERS table is a big table with 20 GB of data.
You notice that the selectivity for these three columns varies from the selectivity that the optimizer
calculates.
What would you recommend to influence the selectivity calculated by the optimizer?
A. creating function-based indexes by concatenating all the columns
B. updating histogram statistics for these columns by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
C. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and create
index on the virtual column
D. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure to collect statistics on the virtual column
ANSWER: D

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NO.19 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You detected free buffer waits
events for your database instance running in a machine that has multiple CPUs. You increased the
database buffer cache size as the first step. After a few hours of work on the database, further
investigation shows that the same event is being recorded.
What would be your next step to avoid this event in future?
A. Decrease the value of the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter.
B. Set the USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS parameter to TRUE.
C. Increase the value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter.
D. Increase the value of the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. By day most of the application
users perform queries accessing the most recently added or modified rows. The applications have most
of the queries based on multiple tables. But at night, some batch processing is also done.
Which two actions would you recommend to choose a goal for the optimizer based on the needs of your
application? (Choose two.)
A.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS at the instance level
B.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to FIRST_ROWS_n at the instance level
C.asking the developer to add a hint /*ALL_ROWS*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
D.asking the developer to add a hint /*FIRST_ROWS_n*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
ANSWER: BC

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Code d'Examen: MSC-121
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.12 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.14 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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