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Code d'Examen: HP0-M18
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP LoadRunner Software)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C. the time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D. the time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other
measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer:A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?
A. Thumbnail
B. Extended Log
C. Content Check
D. Snapshot on Error
Answer: D

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NO.7 You configure a scenario to start with a delay of <05:00:00> (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from
work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A. You failed to save the scenario.
B. You failed to save the schedule.
C. You failed to connect to the load generators.
D. You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which scenario execution run allows you to verify the system performs as expected under load?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: B

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NO.9 When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the lr_start_transaction function be
placed?
A. at the end of the action section
B. at the beginning of the action section
C. immediately after the rendezvous function
D. immediately before the rendezvous function
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Analysis graph shows the number of transactions against transaction response times?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination
machines?
A. MS IIS
B. Windows Resource
C. Network Delay Time
D. Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to
drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current
number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

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NO.14 In the Analysis tool, what allows you to modify the scale of the x-axis?
A. think time
B. granularity
C. event type
D. transaction hierarchical path
Answer: B

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NO.15 After the scenario execution, which LoadRunner component is responsible for collecting and
organizing the performance data?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. load generator
Answer: C

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NO.16 When scheduling by scenario, to which group(s) does the defined schedule apply?
A. all groups in the scenario
B. only the first group in the scenario
C. only the selected group in the scenario
D. only the selected group in the scenario scheduler
Answer:A

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NO.17 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test
scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C

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NO.19 During analysis of a scenario, you realize that the throughput becomes flat as Vusers continue to
increase. What is the likely cause?
A. a bandwidth problem
B. a database server problem
C. a web server connection problem
D. an application server connection problem
Answer:A

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NO.20 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the
Vusers.
Start auto log message stack - Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-083
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS Network Administration)
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which protocol does GateD use to advertise routes?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. ESNMP
Answer: C

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NO.3 What happens if the "Retransmit Threshold" of the OSI transport is exceeded?
A. server process exits
B. connection is dropped
C. DECnet hangs
D. system shuts down
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many hosts can be configured using the IP network and subnet mask shown below?

NO.5 What is a function of ICMP?
A. sharing web pages between nodes
B. translating names to addresses
C. transporting and routing information
D. sharing IP status and error information
Answer: D

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NO.6 66.96.0 255.255.255.192
A. 62
B. 64
C. 191
D. 192
E. 254
Answer: A

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10. Which network device forwards packets between IP subnets?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. switch
D. router
Answer: D

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NO.7 What do you do to preserve site-specific parameter settings and commands for a specific TCPIP
service?
A. Edit SYS$SYSTARTUP:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
B. Edit SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
C. Create files of the form SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
D. Create files of the form SYS$STARTUP:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which technique can you apply to connect two network segments with nodes having the same
addresses?
A. Active Directory
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have a system with three network adapters. How would you benefit from having two adapters on
the same subnet?
A. network connectivity failover
B. load balancing of MOP traffic
C. route two networks through OpenVMS system
D. allows the system to use one adapter for send and the other for receive
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a similarity between TCPIP proxy and DECnet proxy?
A. both use the same proxy database
B. both allow remote users anonymous access
C. both use AUTHORIZE to manage their database
D. both allow remote users to transparently access files
Answer: D

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NO.11 You need to present four names to an IP network. What is the minimal hardware configuration
required?
A. one server with one NIC
B. one server with four NICs
C. two servers with two NICs each
D. four servers with one NIC each
Answer: A

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NO.12 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a function of TCPIP$INETACP?
A. monitoring all pseudo devices
B. ensuring that network servers are running
C. maintaining the routing table
D. listening for and dispatching incoming connections
Answer: D

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NO.14 A netstat -r command on node 16.112.138.25 displays the following information:
Routing tables
Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Interface
Route Tree for Protocol Family 26:
Route Tree for Protocol Family 2:
default 16.112.128.1 UGS 2 94624 WE0
16.112.128 belize U 1 48405 WE0
belize belize UHL 0 0 WE0
LOCALHOST LOCALHOST UHL 49 13939757 LO0
16.10.121.2 16.112.128.3 UGHS 3 57536 WE0
Which route is used to ping node 16.3.12.47?
A. LOCALHOST
B. default
C. 16.112.128
D. 16.10.121.2
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the function of the ARP protocol?
A. to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. to resolve service names to port assignments
C. to ensure quality of service (QoS) for a connection
D. to determine the shortest path between two IP nodes
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which DECnet configuration files need to be kept synchronized in an OpenVMS cluster? Select TWO.
A. NETOBJECT.DAT
B. NET$MANAGE.DAT
C. NET$SECURITY.DAT
D. NETNODE_LOCAL.DAT
E. NETPROXY.DAT/NET$PROXY.DAT
Answer: AE

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NO.17 A customer requires that users can establish interactive sessions across the network, but they will NOT
allow passwords to be sent in the clear. What can you use to satisfy this dual requirement?
A. RSH
B. SSH
C. RLOGIN
D. SET HOST
Answer: B

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NO.18 A user needs to run a TCP/IP application using an unprivileged account. Which port numbers are
available for this?
A. any free port above 511
B. any free port above 1023
C. any free port above 2047
D. any free port above 4095
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which types of routing can you set up on an OpenVMS system? Select TWO.
A. fixed
B. static
C. flexible
D. adaptive
E. dynamic
Answer: BE

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NO.20 What advantage do TCP broadcast packets have over UDP broadcast packets?
A. They can be routed.
B. They are better compressed.
C. They have a shorter round trip time.
D. They implement a one to many message.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S15
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?
A.Create a password for root in SMH.
B.Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C.Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D.Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which feature in Intelligent Networking Pack (INP) allows the creation of groups inside a single
team, where each group is assigned one or more teamed ports?
A.fast path failover
B.router path failover
C.dual channel teaming
D.dual channel load balancing
Correct:C

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NO.3 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.4 What can be imported into the System Management Homepage to increase security?
A.local server certificate
B.encrypted password file
C.Secure Shell (SSH) public key
D.128bit RC4 encryption license
Correct:A

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NO.5 When looking into HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM), an administrator detects an issue
with a c-Class server blade. However, in the Onboard Administrator, everything looks fine. What
could be the reason?
A.The Onboard Administrator is running in a different VLAN than the HP SIM server.
B.The c-Class server blades are running an older version of the HP management agents.
C.The Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the blades.
D.The management link between the c-Class server blades and the Onboard Administrator is not
configured.
Correct:C

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NO.6 What is the recommended method of configuring the access security control between HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and the System Management Homepage (SMH)?
A.configure trust by name in HP SIM
B.configure trust by certificate in the SMH
C.import the SSH private key generated by HP SIM into SMH
D.synchronize the password files between SMH and HP SIM
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?
A.HP standard design
B.variation of an HP standard design
C.flexible design using HP standard design
D.custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on
hardware configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant
Support Pack?
A.HP Control Tower
B.HP System Management Homepage
C.HP Performance Management agents
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.11 What do you need to access the Onboard Administrator for a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure
remotely? (Select two.)
A.a standard USB cable
B.an RS-232 serial cable
C.a compatible web browser
D.a terminal emulation program
E.the Onboard Administrator IP address
Correct:C E

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NO.12 What action does HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) take when a blade server is identified
through another system in the same rack or enclosure?
A.The system is catalogued to be polled during the next discovery task
B.Associations are made between the blade server operating system to the next blade server operating
system using the Interconnect ID.
C.Associations are made between the iLO and the enclosure in which the system resides.
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) requests all relevant information about the blade server to the
HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.13 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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NO.14 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.15 What is downloaded from an HP website when updating the patch database used by
Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM)?
A.updated VPM software, if available
B.latest patches from different vendors
C.latest vulnerability scan definition files
D.newer version of the Radia patch agent, if available
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking
devices such as routers, bridges and switches?
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:A

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NO.17 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.18 What is used by Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) to improve security? (Select two.)
A.XML scripting
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.Virtual password store
D.Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
E.Secure Task Execution (STE)
Correct:B D

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NO.19 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.20 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M21
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Universal Configuration Management Database Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 What would you see in a Topology map if you set the "Number of Hops" to 4?
A. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or fewer links
B. CIs that are directly related to the selected CI
C. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or more links
D. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by three or fewer links
Answer: A

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NO.2 What information do patterns store?
A. CIs and relationships to be created, Discovery Protocols, Parameters and scripts
B. Destination list and Protocols and triggered CIs
C. Only credentials
D. Scripts and UCMDB connection
Answer: A

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NO.3 When are view parameters created?
A. when the TQL is created
B. when the view is created
C. when the TQL is calculated
D. when the view is calculated
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the correct statement with regard to "Filter Related in DB"?
A. Displays the related CIs from the current view
B. Displays the related CIs from the entire CMDB
C. Displays specific types of related CIs from the current view
D. Displays specific types of related CIs from the entire CMDB
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a script used for?
A. It is a part of the pattern and contains the connection code to connect to infrastructure resources and
request information
B. It is used for the TQL for triggered list
C. It is used for the TQL command lines
D. It is the code used for finding the result in the uCMDB
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to add a new CI to the view in the Topology View. Which are the possible actions you may
take?
A. Insert CI and Insert View
B. Insert View and Insert Related CI
C. Insert CI and Insert Related CI D. Insert View only
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the domain scope?
A. A set of IP Addresses that contains credential information
B. All the IPs that the probe can access to
C. The Probe's IP
D. The User's network Domain
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a topology map?
A. a manager used to create and organize views
B. a graphical representation of a subset of the CMDB
C. the editing pane where views are created
D. a list representation of a subset of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.9 What pattern is used for discovering IP's?
A. ICMP
B. WMI
C. SNMP
D. JMX
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the "View Sublayer" context menu used for?
A. to include the CI Type instances and instances of all subtypes in the view
B. to attach new related CI
C. to view child CIs without navigating away from the present layer
D. to view parent CIs without navigating away from the present layer
Answer: C

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NO.11 What types of information can be derived using Discovery?
A. Config files, reading records from another system, looking at network data
B. Config files ,OS and DB tables C. All network device
D. All In-house and network software and hardware
Answer: A

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NO.12 How many sets of credential per protocol are allowed?
A. Only one
B. Many
C. At least one
D. Maximum two
Answer: B

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NO.13 How do you navigate between layers?
A. by double-clicking on the Related in View in Related CIs tab
B. by double-clicking on the Navigation button in the menu bar
C. by selecting a layout from the Layout menu in the menu bar
D. by double-clicking on the down arrow and the green up arrow
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the "Refresh View" menu item used for?
A. to update the information in the IT Universe Manager
B. to update the information in the view explorer
C. to rebuild the view
D. to refresh the browser
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which is not part of a package?
A. Class definitions (XML)
B. TQL and Views
C. Reports, Correlations and Enrichments
D. Protocols and credentials
Answer: D

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NO.16 Where would you edit the attribute value of a CI?
A. on the Related CIs page of IT Universe Manager
B. on the Topology Map page of IT Universe Manager
C. on the Properties page of IT Universe Manager
D. on the Properties page of View Manager
Answer: C

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NO.17 What protocol(s) are used to discover J2EE environments?
A. JMX
B. JDBC and WMI
C. SNMP or WMI
D. JMX and ICMP
Answer: A

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.18 Which layer(s) does Discovery support or extract information from?
A. Layers 2 through 7
B. Only layers 2 and 7
C. Layer 7 only (application)
D. Layers 2,5 and 7
Answer: A

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NO.19 You navigate to the topology map and notice that there are no labels to the CIs. What might be the
reason for this?
A. The Map overview option is selected.
B. The Hide All Relationship option is selected.
C. The Hide All Node Labels option is selected.
D. The Hide All Relationship Labels option is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which three components comprise a discovery task?
A. User, server and pattern
B. Server, DB and probe
C. Pattern, script and credentials
D. DB, pattern and protocol
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J26
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

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NO.1 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A.Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B.Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer:B

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NO.2 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure all
customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A.Card Arrangement
B.Information Extraction
C.Brainstorming
D.Process Mapping
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A.Timing variables do not need to match.
B.R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C.R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D.R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer:C

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NO.4 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less
than 140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A.3:1 to 1:1
B.1:1 to 3:1
C.15:1 to 7:1
D.7:1 to 15:1
Answer:B

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NO.5 What has the most influence on the response time of a hard disk drive?
A.arbitration
B.host request
C.rotational delay
D.seek time
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A.serial numbers of connected servers
B.SAN switch zoning configurations
C.storage controller operating mode parameters
D.IP addresses of the connected servers
E.World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer:B C

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NO.7 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at a
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two).
A.HP StorageWorks FlexCopy
B.HP Continuous Access EVA
C.additional disks in the EVA
D.HP Virtual Replicator
E.HP Business Copy EVA
Answer:B E

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NO.8 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A.fabric management service
B.fabric interconnection without merge
C.SAN availability improvement
D.SAN extension across long distances
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for a
customer documentation?
A.SAN Health
B.SAN Designer
C.SAN Visibility
D.SAN Navigator
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which features can affect performance in a SAN? (Select three.)
A.cable modes
B.number of ISLs
C.type of LC connector
D.storage array configuration
E.type and capacity of disks used
F.storage access restrictions
Answer:B D E

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Code d'Examen: HP2-061
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )
Questions et réponses: 365 Q&As

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NO.1 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.3 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.4 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.11 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.12 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

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NO.15 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

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NO.16 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

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NO.19 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

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NO.21 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

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NO.22 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.23 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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NO.25 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

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NO.26 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.27 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

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NO.28 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.29 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.30 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M28
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Asset Manager Software)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are user login passwords stored? (Select three.)
A.in NT Security
B.in Asset Manager
C.in RDBMS Security
D.in Asset Manager Web
E.in an external LDAP directory
Answer:A B E

HP   HP0-M28   HP0-M28   certification HP0-M28

NO.2 Which value will the script, Instr(0,This is a test,test) return?
A.0
B.11
C.true
D.false
Answer:B

HP   HP0-M28   HP0-M28   certification HP0-M28

NO.3 How would you display the Brand name in the list on the Computers table?
A.from Configure list ->Brands table, select the Name field
B.from Configure list, ->Brands table, select the Name field
C.from Configure Object, ->Brands table, select the Name field
D.from Configure list, ->Portfolio -> Links -> Models -> Links to Brands table, select the Name field
Answer:D

HP   HP0-M28   HP0-M28

NO.4 What is the difference between an internal request and a standard request?
A.An internal request is held in a different table than a standard request.
B.A standard request can only be used for requesting assets. An internal request can only be used for
requesting services.
C.There is no difference between internal requests and standard requests; they are both found in the
amRequest table and have the same attributes.
D.An internal request is available via the Portfolio module and cannot be used to create estimates and
orders. A standard request is available via the Procurement module and can be used to create estimates
and orders.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which type of calculated field can be used in a filter?
A.AQL
B.Javascript
C.BASIC script
D.calculated string
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which tables will have records created when a new computer is inserted? (Select three.)
A.Assets
B.Monitors
C.Computers
D.Portfolio Items
E.Employees and Departments
Answer:A C D

HP   HP0-M28 examen   HP0-M28

NO.7 Which wildcard operator is used to represent a single character search when using a simple filter?
A.*
B.
C.__
D.%
Answer:C

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NO.8 What will the query, lCostId=0, run against the Portfolio Items table return?
A.all portfolio items associated with cost center 0
B.all portfolio items associated with any cost center
C.all portfolio items not associated with a cost center
D.all portfolio items associated with a cost center other than 0
Answer:C

HP   HP0-M28   HP0-M28   HP0-M28 examen

NO.9 Which value will the script, LeftPart(This_is_a_test,_,0) return?
A.This
B.This_
C.This_a
D.This is a test
Answer:A

HP examen   HP0-M28   HP0-M28 examen   HP0-M28

NO.10 A particular lessor requires that payments are made five days before the beginning of the month. Which
fields are required to reflect this requirement?
A.Payment, Periodicity, Grace
B.Payment, Bill Cycle Day, Grace
C.Periodicity, Bill Cycle Day, Grace
D.Periodicity, Payment, Bill Cycle Day
Answer:D

HP   certification HP0-M28   HP0-M28

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Code d'Examen: HP0-606
Nom d'Examen: HP (Data Protector Basics for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 .What does Data Protector use for Inter-Process Communication (IPC)?
A. global
B. remote
C. port 5555
D. shared memory + pipe/socket
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-606   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606

NO.2 .The Data Protector user account and its service MUST have permission to access the remote
computer and permission on the Disk Agent client.
A. IP
B. Inet
C. Ipnet
D. Destination
Answer: B

HP   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606   HP0-606 examen

NO.3 .Which function allows checking to see if the Data Protector data on a specified medium is readable?
A. verify
B. modify
C. specify
D. reinitialize
Answer: A

certification HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   certification HP0-606

NO.4 .What service runs on each Windows system in the Data Protector cell and is responsible for
communication between the systems in the cell?
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server (CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.5 .What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify filesystem objects in the database?
A. device filenames and hostname
B. filenames mountpoint, and device
C. hostname mountpoint, and description
D. hostname device, and rawdisk sections
Answer: C

HP   HP0-606   certification HP0-606   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606

NO.6 .The Data Protector encode object option used for encryption uses a simple algorithm implemented in
a shared "C" program library.
A. XOR
B. XNOT
C. XORD
D. XNAND
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-606   certification HP0-606   certification HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.7 .What determines the amount of detail on files and directories written to the Data Protector database?
A. disk quota
B. logging level
C. load balancing
D. information store
Answer: B

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606

NO.8 .Which type of media management service facilities communication among applications, robotic
changers and media libraries for NT systems?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Remote Control
C. Removable Storage Manager
D. Session Manager Binary Files
Answer: C

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.9 .Media can only be exported if the protection of the sessions has expired or a has been performed.
A. verify
B. recycle
C. re-scan
D. reinitialize
Answer: B

HP   HP0-606   certification HP0-606   certification HP0-606

NO.10 .On HP Disk Arrays only - a local mirror, where both disks are in he same array Data Protector
integration uses
A. Control Unit
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Logical Volume Manager
Answer: B

HP examen   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.11 .Once the Manager-of-Manager has been configured, Data Protector cells can be added with the
function.
A. install
B. import
C. add cells
D. configure
Answer: B

HP   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.12 .What is the default for that Data Protector uses on all clients for communication?
A. 5050
B. 5057
C. 5555
D. 5557
Answer: C

HP examen   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.13 .All catalog information of data written to media is stored in specific if appropriate logging option is
selected.
A. Detail Catalog (DC)
B. Backup Control System (BCS)
C. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D. Media Management Database (MMDB)
Answer: C

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NO.14 .The System Recovery Dat afile is automatically written two times. It is written once when backing up
and another time when backing up
A. the filesystem. individual files
B. replacement files. directory trees
C. a CRITICAL object; Data Protector internal database
D. the CONFIGURATION object; the Data Protector internal database
Answer: D

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NO.15 .Data Protector security is based on .
A. cells
B. clients
C. devices
D. sessions
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.16 .The Data Protector database on the Windows Cell Manager stores information on about file names.
A. 100 million
B. 200 million
C. 450 million
D. 700 million
Answer: C

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NO.17 .What lets logical volumes be mounted as disk drives?
A. domain ports
B. aparse points
C. eeparse points
D. object connect
Answer: C

certification HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   certification HP0-606   HP0-606 examen

NO.18 .What are the two main purposes for a media pool?
A. media condition and usage
B. logical organization and policies
C. physical description and location
D. to keep track of full backups and incremental backups
Answer: B

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.19 .What are the three main media management PROTECTION features?
A. labeling, duplication and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization, and location tracking
D. logical organization of media, pools and allocation policies
Answer: A

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NO.20 .What are the three main media management library features?
A. labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage, and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization and location tracking
D. logical organization of media pools and allocation policies
Answer: C

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NO.21 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles local datastream?
A. Disk -> Device
B. Disk -> Memory -> Device
C. Disk -> Memory -> Network -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory -> Destination Device
Answer: B

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NO.22 .The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge that runs every day at .
A. 12.00
B. 15.00
C. 22.00
D. 00.00
Answer: A

certification HP   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.23 .What feature of Data Protector dynamically determines which object (disk) should be backed up to
which device?
A. disk image
B. compression
C. load balancing
D. object distribution
Answer: C

certification HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   certification HP0-606

NO.24 .To use he same device with different media pools several must be created.
A. media agents
B. media specifications
C. backup specifications
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.25 .When backing up over a SAN Data Protector can be configured with a SCSI Library so that each client
system has its' own access to library robotics and drives. This is called .
A. device sharing
B. SAN library access
C. direct library access
D. multi-drive library sharing
Answer: C

HP examen   certification HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.26 .What process/service runs on the Data Protector cell manager. It starts and controls backup and
restore sessions.
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: B

HP examen   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.27 .What tracks the elapsed times of key operations and registers this data collection as well as volume
data within Data Protector?
A. Cost Recovery
B. Service Monitoring
C. HP Open View Operations
D. Application Response Measurement (ARM)
Answer: D

HP   HP0-606   certification HP0-606   certification HP0-606   certification HP0-606

NO.28 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles a network datastream?
A. Disk-> Device
B. Disk -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
C. Disk -V Source Device -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory of Source System -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
Answer: D

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606   HP0-606

NO.29 .The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) parts are implemented
using an embedded database consisting of tablespaces. All the changes to the MMDB and CDB are
updated using .
A. binary files
B. direct access
C. transaction logs
D. session messages
Answer: C

HP   HP0-606   HP0-606 examen   HP0-606

NO.30 .Which information does the Catalog Database (CDB) store?
A. file version information
B. backup and restore sessions
C. configured devices and media pools
D. the number of sessions performed for a given time
Answer: B

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