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Code d'Examen: BCP-520

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS Solution)

Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 What happens during an active BlackBerry MVS call when a failover is initiated by the BlackBerry MVS
Console? (Choose one.)
A. Active BlackBerry MVS Wi-Fi calls are preserved
B. Active BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile calls are preserved
C. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped without notification
D. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are preserved
E. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped after the notification tone
Answer: D

BlackBerry   certification BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.2 What are three functions of the SIP Line connection between the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
and the PBX? (Choose three.)
A. Registering BlackBerry MVS users with the PBX
B. Communicating Call setup messages
C. Reporting on the health of the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Exchanging KPML messages
E. Performing PBX directory lookups
Answer: A,B,D

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.3 Which three processes make use of the SIP Trunk? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Client registration
B. Mobile Call initiation using voice over mobile
C. Mid-call features such as transfer and hold
D. BlackBerry device-initiated call authentication
E. Wi-Fi profile authentication
Answer: B,C,D

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520   BCP-520 examen   certification BCP-520

NO.4 What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one.)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520   certification BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.5 What is the primary function of the BlackBerry Dispatcher in the BlackBerry MVS Solution? (Choose
one.)
A. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router to the BlackBerry MVS Session
Manager.
B. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
C. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
D. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
E. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
Answer: B

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.7 What is the purpose of the line port in the BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector configuration?
(Choose one.)
A. To allow the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager to receive BlackBerry-initiated calls from the SIP Line
on the PBX
B. To allow the BlackBerry MVS to forward calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of
the BlackBerry device
C. To allow BlackBerry MVS to initiate calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of the
BlackBerry device
D. To allow BlackBerry MVS Clients to register as a BlackBerry MVS Client on the PBX using the SIP Line
Answer: D

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.8 Which logging level in the BlackBerry Mobile Voice System Configuration tool logs the SIP messages
between the BlackBerry MVS Server and PBX? (Choose one.)
A. Info
B. Severe
C. Warning
D. Finer
E. Finest
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which type of database authentication is required if BlackBerry MVS is installed on a different Microsoft
Windows domain than the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Windows authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server authentication
C. Authentication set todb_owner
D. Trusted authentication
Answer: B

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NO.10 On a planning call with a customer, the Windows account requirements for the BlackBerry MVS
installation are discussed. The customer says that the BlackBerry MVS account sounds similar to the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server ESadmin account. The customer asks if this account can be used for
BlackBerry MVS. What is the appropriate response to this query? (Choose one.)
A. This account can be used since it meets the requirements of the Windows account for
BlackBerry MVS.
B. This account cannot be used at the risk of causing issues with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. The permissions appear similar but are not. TheBESadmin account cannot be used.
D. The BESadmin account must be used since the BlackBerry MVS installation sets up the connection to
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
Answer: A

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NO.11 For BlackBerry devices that operate on GSM networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: D

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NO.12 When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should
the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Answer: B

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NO.13 What allows a BlackBerry device to be added as a valid BlackBerry device to a BlackBerry MVS user
DN in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment? (Choose one.)
A. Enabling KPML
B. Assigning the MVS user a 10 digit DID/DDI
C. Installing the COP file and rebooting the PBX
D. Configuring CSS for BlackBerry device-initiated calling
E. Setting the call direction for PBX-initiated calls in a MVS user class of service
Answer: C

certification BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.14 For BlackBerry devices that operate on CDMA networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
the optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.15 What allows a BlackBerry device to differentiate between an inbound call to the mobile number and an
inbound call to the work number? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Client is programmed to recognize calls from a specific DID that the PBX uses to
indicate an enterprise call
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server notifies the BlackBerry device user with an email message
C. An indicator isprepended to the ANI that is sent by the PBX to the BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager sends a SIP message to the BlackBerry MVS client to indicate
that a work call has been initiated
E. Calls to the mobile number use a different ring sequence
Answer: A

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NO.16 The following is a sample of which type of log file? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Session Manager (BBSM)
B. BlackBerry MVS SIP (BBSIP)
C. BlackBerry MVS Call Detail Record (CDR)
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher (DISP)
E. BlackBerry Router (ROUT)
Answer: A

BlackBerry examen   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.17 Which service book is required by the BlackBerry MVS Client to function properly? (Choose one.)
A. Desktop [VoIP]
B. Desktop [MVSSIP]
C. Desktop [BBMVS]
D. Desktop [BBSIP]
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.18 An organization has a hunt group that is configured in the PBX with multiple outgoing trunks. Each
trunk is assigned a unique Caller Identification Number. Where must each Caller Identification Number be
added to ensure that PBX-initiated calling will work? (Choose one.)
A. The MVS locations field in the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. The BlackBerry MVS Client on the BlackBerry device
C. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager in the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. The BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector in the BlackBerry MVS Console
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-520   BCP-520   certification BCP-520   BCP-520 examen

NO.19 How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring
BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the
BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP
Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Answer: D

BlackBerry examen   BCP-520   BCP-520 examen   BCP-520   BCP-520

NO.20 Which BlackBerry MVS Session Manager configuration setting is required in order for BlackBerry
device-initiated calling to work? (Choose one.)
A. Configure a unique SIP IP address
B. Configure BlackBerry MVS for High Availability
C. Add a unique DID/DDI number to each BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Add a unique BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector Caller Identification Number
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 006-002

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part II)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is/are valid reasons to consider using --skip-networking?
A. Your server is not networked to other servers.
B. You do not have a need for remote clients to connect.
C. You have a need for remote clients to connect.
D. You are not going to use replication or clustering.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   certification 006-002

NO.2 Which of the following statements are true regarding wildcards in the host name of an account
specification?
A. The '%' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
B. The '*' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
C. The '_' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
D. The '.' character is used to match any single character or number
E. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the beginning of the host name or IP
address only
F. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the end of the host name or IP address
only
G. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters anywhere in the host name or IP address
Answer: AG

MYSQL   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002

NO.3 In regards to security, which of the following statements are true?
A. mysqld should not be run as root or administrator.
B. mysqld should be run as root or administrator.
C. The user owning the server process should own all files and directories to which the server may write.
D. The root or admininistrator users should own all files related to the server process
Answer: AC

MYSQL   certification 006-002   certification 006-002   006-002

NO.4 Which of the following best describe the effects on performance for the dynamic-row format for
MyISAM has?
A. Retrievals are more complex and slower.
B. Retrievals are less complex and are faster.
C. Rows generally take up less disk space than fixed-row format.
D. Rows generally take up more disk space than fixed-row format.
Answer: AC

MYSQL   006-002 examen   006-002 examen

NO.5 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002

NO.6 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

MYSQL   006-002   certification 006-002   006-002

NO.7 Consider the following EXPLAIN output.
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM City WHERE Population > 8000000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: City
type: ALL
possible_keys: NULL
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 4079
Extra: Using where
Which of the following statements are true?
A. The query cannot be optimized any better.
B. No index could be used to perform the query.
C. All 4079 rows of the table need to examined.
D. The Name column should be indexed.
E. The Population column should be indexed.
Answer: BCE

MYSQL examen   006-002   006-002   006-002   006-002   006-002

NO.8 What type of resource limitations may be placed on a user account with the GRANT statement?
A. The number of times per hour that an account is allowed to connect to the server
B. The number of queries per hour an account is allowed to issue
C. The number of updates per hour an account is allowed to issue
D. The maximum number of simultaneous connections an account can have
E. Resource limits can only be specified globally, not per-account
F. MySQL does not have provisions for limiting resource usage
Answer: ABCD

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NO.9 Which of the following are important network factors for remote MySQL clients?
A. Latency.
B. Firewalls.
C. Throughput speed.
D. The type of routers used.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which of the following best describes what MASTER_LOG_FILE and MASTER_LOG_POS provides?
A. The path of the log file.
B. The file to log replication actions to.
C. The masters binary log name used for replication.
D. The position in the masters binary log in which to start replication.
Answer: CD

certification MYSQL   006-002 examen   006-002

NO.11 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

MYSQL   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002   006-002

NO.12 Does max_connections have an affect on the number of slaves that may connect to a master?
A. No, because slaves are not really clients.
B. Yes, because each slave is effectively a connected user.
C. No, because slaves do not use the same type of connection as a regular client.
D. Yes, because if the server has too many connections, it may slow the slaves down.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002

NO.13 Is it possible to tell the MySQL server to throw an error on division-by-zero rather than converting it to
NULL and a warning?
A. No, it has to be done programmatically.
B. Yes, by updating a system variable.
C. Yes, there is a SQL mode that exists for that.
D. No, division-by-zero is always converted regardless of any setting.
Answer: C

MYSQL   certification 006-002   006-002   certification 006-002

NO.14 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

MYSQL   006-002   006-002

NO.15 Which of the following statements best describe the key buffer?
A. It is a global buffer.
B. It is set on a per-connection basis.
C. It caches index blocks for MyISAM tables only.
D. It caches index blocks for InnoDB tables only.
E. It caches index blocks for all storage engine tables.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true regarding the structure of grant tables in new distributions?
A. They change with every upgrade.
B. They are often changed.
C. They remain the same for backwards compatibility.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002 examen

NO.17 The type of file system you chose may affect MySQL use and/or performance with regard to...
A. Table opening time.
B. Size limits of files.
C. Time to recover from a crash.
D. The number of users MySQL can handle.
E. The type of storage engines that can be used.
Answer: ABC

certification MYSQL   certification 006-002   006-002

NO.18 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
B. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
C. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.19 What kind of replication is supported by the MySQL server?
A. Multiple-master replication
B. Master to slave replication
C. Single file based clustering
D. MySQL doesn't support replication
Answer: B

MYSQL   certification 006-002   006-002 examen

NO.20 Assuming that the user account 'joe'@'example.com' exists, executing DROP USER
'joe'@'example.com' has the following consequences:
A. The user account will immediately be removed from the server, if no object-level privileges are in effect
for that account
B. The account will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH PRIVILEGES is executed, if no
object-level privileges are in effect for that account
C. The account and all associated privileges will immediately be removed from the server
D. The user account and all associated privileges will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH
PRIVILEGES is executed.
Answer: C

MYSQL   certification 006-002   certification 006-002   006-002 examen

NO.21 Can multi-column FULLTEXT indexes be used? If so, when?
A. No, they can not be used.
B. Yes, they should be used to search multiple columns simultaneously.
C. Yes, they can be used to search either one or all of the indexed columns.
Answer: B

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NO.22 When working with replication, why might you want to stop the SQL thread on the slave while keeping
the I/O thread running?
A. So that no changes are made while making backups.
B. So that events for the slave do not get backlogged on the master.
C. So that remaining events can be processed while not receiving new events from the master.
Answer: AB

MYSQL   006-002   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002

NO.23 When performing diagnostic functions on a server should excessive start and stop messages be looked
for in the error log, and why?
A. No, start and stop messages are of no relevance to diagnostics.
B. Yes, because there is a bug in mysqld that can cause multiple start and stop messages to be inserted
in the log.
C. No, because they will not provide any information as to what is wrong.
D. Yes, because they can indicate that there is something causing the server to restart unexpectedly and
not due to normal startup and shutdown.
Answer: D

MYSQL examen   006-002   006-002   006-002 examen   006-002

NO.24 Which of the following statements are true of compressed tables?
A. They can be uncompressed.
B. They can not be uncompressed.
C. They can be uncompressed but some data corruption may occur.
Answer: A

MYSQL   certification 006-002   006-002   certification 006-002   006-002

NO.25 Which of the following would be considered a good candidate table for compression?
A. A table with data that needs only few updates in the future.
B. A table with data that will not be updated in the future.
C. A large table, such as those used for data warehousing.
D. All MyISAM tables are good candidates for compression.
Answer: B

MYSQL   certification 006-002   certification 006-002

NO.26 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: AB

certification MYSQL   certification 006-002   006-002   006-002

NO.27 The user 'joe' connecting from the host example.com has full access to all databases on the server:
mysql> SHOW GRANTS FOR 'joe'@'example.com';
+----------------------------------------------------+
| Grants for joe@example.com |
+----------------------------------------------------+
| GRANT ALL PRIVILEGES ON *.* TO 'joe'@'example.com' |
+----------------------------------------------------+
1 row in set (0.00 sec)
You need to restrict the user from accessing the mysql database. Will the following statement do this?
REVOKE ALL PRIVILEGES ON mysql.* FROM 'joe'@'example.com'
A. Yes
B. No
C. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Answer: B

MYSQL examen   006-002 examen   006-002   certification 006-002

NO.28 In the following query, the Population column is indexed:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name
-> FROM Country
-> WHERE Code LIKE '%B%' AND Population > 10000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: ALL
possible_keys: i_pop
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 239
Extra: Using where
Which of the following best describes how to deal with the key value of the EXPLAIN output?
A. Use FORCE KEY
B. Use USE INDEX.
C. Use FORCE INDEX.
D. Use USE POSSIBLE_KEY
Answer: BC

MYSQL   006-002   006-002   006-002

NO.29 Which of the following optimizations could be made based on data collected in the slow query log?
A. Tune server parameters.
B. Change the storage engines in use.
C. Make changes to the network infrastructure.
D. Rewrite queries to perform more efficiently.
E. Normalize data or add indexes to the tables that the queries use.
Answer: ABDE

certification MYSQL   006-002 examen   006-002   006-002   certification 006-002

NO.30 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: ABC

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Code d'Examen: C_TAW12_70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 334 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 You have issued a Set Title bar in the PBO of your screen, Hon long Will the title remain active?
A.Until the Next screen change
B.Until the next Set TitleBar stement
C.Until the next DB Luw
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which transaction is used to make dictionary adjustments when upgrading versions of SAP?
A.SPAU
B.SP01
C.SPDD
D.CMOD
Answer: C

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NO.5 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?
A.Enhancements to the SAP Sndard
B.Append Structures
C.Customizing
D.Modifications to the SAP Sndard
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is true about a logical dabase program?
A.Any Node that is accessed requires the Node to be defined in the NODES stement
B.The Put Stement in the LDB provides da for the Get Event in the report program
C.Get Event in the report program requests da from the Put Stement
D.You can access hierarchically higher tables in your program even though there is no table stement for
the table
Answer: B

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NO.9 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 On what line does the output AAAA
appear in the following code?
A.9
B.2
C.1
D.10
Answer: B

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NO.11 Mark the three system fields that are continuously mainined by the list
(More than one answer is correct)
A.SY-LINSZ
B.SY-TITLE
C.SY-LINNO
D.SY-COLNO
E.SY-PAGNO
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.12 What is true about calling a screen (More than one answer is correct)
A.A screen can be called from within a function module
B.Screens should be called from PBO modules
C.Screens can be called from PAI modules
D.A screen can be called from a report program
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.13 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.14 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is conined in the system variatable sy-Linsz?
A.Row count of the current line
B.Height of the current line
C.Width of the current line
D.Size of vertical bars in your list
Answer: C

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NO.16 Identify the situation Where Append Structures are not allowed.
(More than one answer is correct)
A.If the last field has a domain of da type curr
B.If the last field is already an Append Structure
C.If the table conins a field of da type LCHR or LRAW
D.If the table is a pooled or cluster table
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 If the program has SRT-OF-SELECTION event and you program stement between the REPORT
stement and the first event keyword or form stement, the stement are than included with which processing
block
A.SRT-OF-SELECTION
B.END-OF-SELECTION
C.Initialization
D.No Processing Block
Answer: A

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NO.18 Mark the valid usage of Read stement(More than one answer is correct)
A.DO. Read Line SY-INDEX. ENDDO
B.Read Line 3 of Current Page
C.Read Line 3 of Next Page
D.Read Current Line of table IB
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 Where does information come from when you press F1 on a screen field?
A.Da element documention
B.Domain short text
C.Search help
D.Domain Help values
Answer: A

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NO.20 What type of memory is typically used as default values for screen fields?
A.SAP memory
B.ABAP/4 memory
C.Shared Memory
Answer: A

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NO.21 What is true about the following code?
A.The Module Validate is processed if both FLIGHT and CARRID are other than the initial value
B.The Module Validate is processed if at least one of the fields FLIGHT or CARRID are other than the
initial value
C.The Module Validate is processed only if both FLIGHT and CARRID are initial values
D.The Module Validate is never processed
Answer: B

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NO.22 How does a customer benefit by using SSCR?
A.To log enhancements made by a development user
B.To log Customizing made by a development user
C.To log modifications made by a development user
Answer: C

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NO.23 What object is not supported by the Modification assisnt?
A.User exits
B.Text Elements
C.Functions
D.Menus
Answer: A

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NO.24 A screen field has been dynamically changed in a dialog program. When does it get re-initialized?
A.At the end of the transaction
B.Only when the program encounters more code to modify the field attributes
C.At PAI execution
D.At PBO execution
Answer: D

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NO.25 In what case are bstrips good candidates?(More than one answer is correct)
A.When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B.When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C.When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen
Answer: A, C

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NO.26 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.27 What does the DESCRIBE TABLE stement provide to the program?
A.Access Type
B.Key Definition
C.Key Uniqueness
D.Key length
Answer: A

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NO.28 What controls the dialogue behavior of a search help?(More than one answer is correct)
A.Admin da
B.DPOS
C.SPOS
D.LPOS
E.Value Range
Answer: C, D

SAP   C_TAW12_70   C_TAW12_70   C_TAW12_70

NO.29 Identify the different type categories in the ABAP dictionary (More than one answer is correct)
A.table Types
B.Da Models
C.Structures
D.Da definitions
E.Da Elements
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.30 Makr the valid asynchronous update bunding technique.
A.UPDATE
B.CALL FUNCTION.. .. IN UPDATE SK
C.PERFORM ASYNCHRONOUS
D.PERFORM.. .. ON COMMIT
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_EPMBPC_70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business rule when there
is no subtable type dimension in the Application?
A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
Answer: C

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NO.2 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
Answer: D

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NO.3 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changing documents type but not document subtype
B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin parameters without
entering the required parameters?
A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
Answer: B

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NO.5 What fields are required to eliminate the investment when using the 'All Formula'?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Source Account
B. Destination Group Account
C. Destination Equity Account
D. Destination Minority Interest
E. Destination All Account
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes?
A. At Appset level in Admin Console
B. At Appset level in Web Admin
C. At Application level in Admin Console
D. At Application level in Web Admin
Answer: D

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NO.7 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.9 For which scenario is it impossible to use the work status?
A. To allow or disallow a user to modify data
B. To lock a region of data in an Application
C. To lock a step in a Business Process Flow
D. To track the status of a planning process
Answer: C

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NO.10 What actions are possible with work status?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Using it only with entity and time type dimensions
B. Bypassing it while executing a data management package
C. Linking it to multiple hierarchies for an Application
D. Launching it from the content library
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
A. Via Work Status
B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver?
A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation.
B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a dimension.
C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member.
D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What settings do you need for Source Account to calculate the liability account 'annual net income'
(ANI)?
A. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, do not reverse sign
B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.15 For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application?
A. Category
B. Account
C. Time
D. Entity
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM42_64

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 In the SAP ECC system, a material is produced with the help of production orders. Though
originally used for rate-based planning only, the planning table is to be used to plan this material.
On the initial screen of the planning table, you select this material and then receive a message
informing you that you cannot use the planning table for this material.
Which one of the following reasons for this message applies?
A. The series production indicator has not been set.
B. There is no valid production version for this material.
C. There are no planned orders or production orders present.
D. There are no requirements present.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one of the following scheduling types cannot be assigned as default to an order type
(production order)?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.3 In your company planning strategies are used in the SAP-ECC demand management that are
based on consumption. Which of the following statements about consumption is true? (Choose
two.)
A. A consumption situation is dynamic and is always restructured with the planning run.
B. Consumption can also take place between order reservations and planned independent
requirements, depending on the strategy.
C. Consumption always takes place on the material level between the planned independent
requirements and the planned orders.
D. The consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous
maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40
(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)
A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in
terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent
requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire
procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 The user you advise requests that you make it possible for the user to produce materials for
stock,for customer orders, projects, orders and cost centers with production orders.
Where can you make settings to ensure these options?
A. Serial number profile.
B. Settlement profile.
C. Valuation variant.
D. Production scheduling profile.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An enterprise based in the USA produces an end product that is used with the unit of
measure"pound" (LB). The material is now to be marketed in the EU. A prerequisite for this is that
the material can be sold with the unit kilogram (KG).
Which of the following solutions does SAP ECC offer?
A. In the basic data customizing, you create a unit of measure group that converts pounds to
kilograms. You then assign this to the material master on basic data view 1.
B. You create a new material with a reference to the original material and assign the metric unit of
measure to the new material master.
C. In the material master, you create a conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms on
basic data view 1.
D. There is no need to take any action. There is a general conversion in the central customizing of
units of measurements, so that automatic conversion of pounds to kilograms takes place.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The master data for an in-house production process is to be set up in the SAP ECC system. To
do this, you should create a suitable routing that plans for five operations in an initial sequence
(10,20, 30, 40, 50). There should be an option of relocating operations 30 and 40 to a second
sequence on other work centers if there are capacity bottlenecks. What sequence type would you
use to create the second sequence in the system?
A. Substitute sequence
B. Alternative sequence
C. Parallel sequence
D. Standard sequence
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following requirements for a manufacturing plant can be supported by using
process
manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. Master recipe-based manufacturing.
B. Material requirements planning for production resources.
C. Manufacturing without orders.
D. Variable calculation of material quantities (product output, material usage).
E. Manufacturing in charge quantities.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.9 The company that you advise does not want to manage certain value-intensive materials in
the warehouse stock. Instead, the user wishes to control material provision in such a way that these
materials are procured directly for the production and/or process order. How can you fulfill this
request? (Choose two.)
A. Using the special procurement key subcontracting in the material master for the component
B. Using the special procurement key direct procurement/external procurement in the material
master for the component
C. Using the item type non-stock item in the bill of material for the material in question
D. Using the procurement type external procurement in the material master for the component
E. Controlling the material in question as a co-product
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried
out automatically when a production order is released?
A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to
be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business
function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master
for the product to be produced.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C_TADM51_70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 (C_TADM51_70))

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 In SAP NetWeaver 7.0, several components need the ABAP and the JAVA stack. The customer has
decided to install both stacks in one database. A default schema user is created for each stack. In which
Oracle database table are these users physically stored and how are they named? The SAP is LNX and
the instance number is 03. (Choose two.)
A. TablE.dba_users; JAVA schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>DB
B. TablE.dba_user; Java user: ORALNXDB
C. TablE.users; ABAP and JAVA Schema owner: SAPLNX
D. TablE.dba_users; ABAP schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>
E. TablE.dba_user; ABAP schema owner: ORALNX
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are using the profile maintenance (transaction code RZ10) to configure profiles and profile
parameters of an AS ABAP+Java based SAP system. Which profiles of the system you can maintain in
RZ10?
A. You can maintain the default profile as well as the start and instance profiles of the ABAP+Java
application servers. However, you cannot maintain the start and instance profiles of the Java central
services instance.
B. Only the default profile and the start profiles can be maintained, because the instance profiles contain
AS Java relevant parameters which cannot be maintained by the ABAP programs used in transaction
RZ10.
C. All profiles (start profiles, instance profiles, default profile) of the system can be maintained.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the registration
process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? (Choose two.)
A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change in
the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.
B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.
C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in Visual
Administrator.
D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.
E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 The Integrated Log Viewer is presented as a service of SAP NetWeaver AS Java. It provides runtime
control for working with log messages.
Which of the following statements about the Integrated Log Viewer is true?
A. The Integrated Log Viewer can merge logs within an SAP NetWeaver AS Java instance.
B. The Integrated Log Viewer provides options for log and trace configuration. You can add new locations
and categories and change the configuration of the existing ones.
C. Log Viewer is the right tool for setting and modifying Severity levels.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Regarding the object, TemSe, of the SAP spool system, which of the following statements are correct.?
(Choose two.)
A. TemSe stores, for example, spool data.
B. TemSe always stores the spool requests in the database.
C. The instance parameter "rspo/store_location" determines where TemSe data is stored.
D. TemSe is always an operating system file.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? (Choose two.)
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is correct regarding transport domains and transport groups in
ABAP-based SAP Systems? (Choose two.)
A. All SAP Systems within one transport group have a common transport directory.
B. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain table), into
which all transports (exports or imports) in the SAP System are logged.
C. All SAP Systems in a transport domain must belong to the same transport group.
D. A transport domain can only be set up if more than one application server is installed.
E. All SAP Systems within one transport domain have RFC destinations (names beginning with "TMS...")
pointing to the same transport domain controller system.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java? (Choose
three.)
A. A UDDI provider
B. The database of the AS Java
C. A client of an AS ABAP based SAP system
D. A directory server (LDAP)
E. A file (also called secure store)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system? (Choose two.)
A. Screens (Dynpros)
B. Buffer areas
C. Programs
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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SAP meilleur examen C_PXSUP_90, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C_PXSUP_90

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Associate - Support Consultant for Incident Management with SAP Business All-in-One)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the function of the F4 key? (Choose two)
A. Display the possible entries.
B. Search for possible entries.
C. Add or remove a value to/from the list of possible entries.
D. Display documentation on possible entries.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which information is displayed when you choose the menu path System - Status? (Choose two)
A. Transaction Code, for example, VA01
B. Development Class (Package), for example, VA
C. Database platform and release, for example, Oracle 8.0.5.1.1
D. Customer Number
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What can you do if a program behaves differently in batch than in a dialog? (Choose two)
A. Search globally in the program for SY-BATCH.
B. Run the program in dialog and change SY-BATCH in the debugger to simulate batch processing.
C. Run the program in batch and click on DEBUGGING.
D. Run the program in batch and select Environment Analysis.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 How long are local system log entries kept available in SM21?
A. Until the next system restart
B. Until the entry is overwritten (circular file)
C. Until the name of the system log file is changed manually
D. Until the records are replicated to the central system log (usually after one hour)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following transactions allows you to find out whether a particular ABAP program (for
example, RMMMPERI or Z_DELETE_ALL_FI_DATA) has been executed at a certain time in the past.?
(Choose two)
A. SM50 (Workprocess overview)
B. SM66 (Systemwide Workprocess overview)
C. ST03 (Workload analysis)
D. ST03N (Workload analysis)
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What kind of function modules may include changes to database tables? (Choose two)
A. Normal function module
B. Remote enabled function module
C. Update function module
D. No function modules at all. Database changes are usually not performed in function module.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which tool of the ABAP Workbench do you use to create global date types and database tables?
A. ABAP Editor
B. Data Dictionary
C. Screen Painter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are events of a report program? (Choose two)
A. AT LINE-SELECTION
B. INITIALIZATION
C. PARAMETERS
D. AT TITLE-PAGE-OUTPUT
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 How can you switch to the debugging mode?
A. Enter /h in the command field
B. Enter /debug in the command field
C. Enter /debugging in the command field
D. Choose Help? Debugging
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have to analyze a job that is currently processing a long running SELECT statement on a
database table. Via transaction 'SM50 - details', you see that the read does not finish.
What can you do?
A. You have to wait until the program returns from the database. Afterwards, you can continue analysis
(for example, with debugging or SQL-Trace).
B. You can analyze the currently processed statement using ST04 - detailed analysis.
C. You can analyze the currently processed statement by starting the SQL-Trace (ST05).
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C-BOE-30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter
(WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space
required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after
it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.6 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.7 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle
database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to
enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the
report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You
want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server
service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you
perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of
the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.12 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.14 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.18 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes
scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability
and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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