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Code d'Examen: MSC-121
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.12 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.14 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-122
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.2 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.5 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EADP10
Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Professional)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 Using street data for a large metropolitan area, which analysis method shows the nearest hospital to a
traffic accident?
A. closest facility
B. route
C. find nearest
D. least-cost path
Answer: A

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NO.2 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type supports
this function.?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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NO.3 When rematching geocoding results, a user notices that E St is being interpreted as East St. How
should a user resolve this issue for future geocoding?
A. remove the entry defining E to mean east in the geocoding XML files
B. recreate the address locator with new reference data
C. create a composite address locator where E is not recognized as east
D. change E to east in the input table to be geocoded before geocoding
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit shown, what has the author of this map done to improve drawing performance?
A. created annotation
B. applied simple symbology
C. generalized features
D. set scale-dependent rendering
Answer: D

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NO.5 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The output
feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.7 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a point
feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the feature class
seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far from the high edge
values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less negative
(e.g. from -45 to -28). which way does the data move?'
A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west
Answer: B

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the exhibit
using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys, respectively.
However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the drop-down list of candidate
keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and represent
features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the difference of their
locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to the
data1
Answer: A

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NO.11 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the most
likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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NO.12 An ArcGIS user is working with a composite address locator that consists of the following:
-Citywide Address Locator -Regional Address Locator -Nationwide Address Locator
How does a composite address locator work if no selection criteria are specified? (Choose two)
A. searches all locators in sequence
B. searches the largest address locator first
C. searches the smallest address locator first
D. searches until an address is found
E. searches the locator with the closest zone
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 An ArcGIS user created a geoprocessing script in which the output layer ¯ s sy m bo l ogy p r ope rt y i s se t t o
an existing layer file. The user intends to share the tool with another ArcGIS user.
How can the user share the script tool while maintaining the symbology in the output layer?
A. Share the script tool while the sumbology layer file embedded in it
B. Publish the script tool as a geoprocessing service to ArcGIS Server
C. Distribute the Toolshare folder containing the script tool and related data
D. Upload the script tool as a model to an FTP site
Answer: B

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NO.14 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears to be
overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.15 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the map file
can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: S90-19A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.4 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.8 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.11 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.13 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: L50-501
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Implementation Engineer)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 Your current SAN environment includes a storage system with LUNs exposed directly to Windows hosts.
You have been asked to integrate this storage system into the new SVM domain. Which statement is
correct?
A. The existing data can be moved to an SVM virtual volume while the application is still writing to the
source LUN.
B. The physical LUN containing the data must be unmounted from the host while the data is been moved
to an SVM virtual volume.
C. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the host while the data is been moved to an
SVM virtual volume.
D. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the SVM servers while the data is been
moved to an SVM virtual volume.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What should you do before starting the SVM server software upgrade process?
A. Reboot the SVM server.
B. Disconnect the SVM Fibre Channel cables.
C. Shut down the SVM Web server.
D. Uninstall the SVM server agent.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Two SVM servers in SVM Domain A are connected over Fibre Channel with two SVM servers in SVM
Domain B. The SVM servers' HBA at each domain can see the SVM servers' HBA at the other SVM
domain. What should you do to interconnect the SVM domains?
A. An SVM automatically negotiates the connection with the SVMs in other domains over Fibre Channel.
B. SVM domains should not be interconnected.
C. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect SVM
Domain.
D. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect FC
Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where is the SVM metadata stored?
A. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drives.
B. On a mirror, between the managed storage array LUNs and the SVM internal hard drive.
C. On a mirror, between managed storage array LUNs.
D. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drive partitions.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 At the end of the SVM installation, which three actions should you perform to ensure that the installation
is correct.? (Choose three.)
A. Test failover between two SVMs to make sure that you can successfully failover between SVMs.
B. Make sure that the SVM recognizes the DPM and that the DPM recognizes all of the devices that are
connected to the DPM ports.
C. Make sure that the SVM and DPM recognize the LUNs available on the storage array.
D. Make sure that the DPMs can communicate with each other.
E. Make sure that the LSI Failover Driver is installed on the SVM server.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 When adding storage to an existing SVM pool, what must be considered?
A. Growing the LUN will provide better utilization of storage.
B. Always pay attention to the performance characteristics of the storage.
C. Always select storage with different storage characteristics.
D. Adding storage to an existing pool will reduce performance.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement about the SVM server software upgrade is true?
A. The SVM server must be rebooted as part of the software upgrade process.
B. The SVM server must only be rebooted on major versions, e.g 5.1 to 5.2.
C. The SVM server can stay online during the software upgrade.
D. The DPMs must be taken offline during the SVM server reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GPEN
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Penetration Tester)
Questions et réponses: 384 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following tools is used to verify the network structure packets and confirm that
the packets are constructed according to specification?
A. EtherApe
B. Snort decoder
C. AirSnort
D. snort_inline
Answer: B

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NO.2 Adam works on a Linux system. He is using Sendmail as the primary application to transmit
emails.
Linux uses Syslog to maintain logs of what has occurred on the system. Which of the following log
files contains e-mail information such as source and destination IP addresses, date and time stamps
etc?
A. /log/var/logd
B. /var/log/logmail
C. /log/var/mailog
D. /var/log/mailog
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following options holds the strongest password?
A. california
B. $#164aviD

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Code d'Examen: AX0-100
Nom d'Examen: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.4 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.8 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.16 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.18 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: ACMA-6.1
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.1)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled.
Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in
between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot
successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What are some best practices when configuring the Aruba Firewall (Select two)?:
A. Use aliases when possible
B. Write rules from least specific to most specific
C. Take actions like blacklisting when users violate policies
D. Create a different policy for each unique rule
E. Create different policies for access to different servers
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 802.11n APs operate in which bands? (Select two)
A. 900 MHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 2.4 MHz
D. 5 GHz
E. 5 MHz
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?
A. The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller
B. The guest-provisioning account can see the controller's configuration but cannot change it
C. The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries
D. The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal AP database
E. The network-operations account cannot access configuration
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following parameters is not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a
floor region?
A. AP Type
B. PHY Type
C. Distance to Controller
D. Environment
E. Desired Data Rate
Answer: C

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NO.6 What information is required by an AP in order to boot? (Select three)
A. AP's IP Address, Netmask, Default Gateway
B. AP's Name and Group
C. Aruba Controller's Master IP Address
D. An established NTP connection to the Master Controller
E. Establish an IPSEC tunnel with the Master controller
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 When configuring a default gateway in the startup wizard it must be a part of:
A. A VLAN configured with an IP interface and assigned to a port
B. An IP range that is not assigned to a port or VLAN
C. A VLAN assigned to a port but without an IP interface configured
D. A VLAN not configured on the controller
E. The management Vlan
Answer: A

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NO.8 Aruba's recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C

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NO.9 Firewall policy should be written from:
A. Least specific to most specific
B. Most specific to least specific
C. Most important resources first
D. Order is not important
E. Policies with the most rules 1st
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following cannot be accomplished from the startup wizard?
A. Basic controller configuration
B. License installation
C. VPN configuration
D. WLAN configuration
E. Firewall Roles
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-142
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS5 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 You are creating a document. You have imported a QuickTime movie into your
document. Which of the following features in the Export Adobe PDF dialog box will
enable the movie to be played in Acrobat? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Interactive Elements checkbox
B. Create PSD File Using Acrobat.
C. Acrobat 5 in the Compatibility pop-up menu.
D. PDF/X4:2008 in the Standard pop-up menu
Answer: A and C

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NO.2 For which of the following tasks is a page tool used? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. To resize several objects that have commonly aligned edges simultaneously, while
keeping the gaps between them fixed
B. To open a set of menu options to change the page size and orientation
C. To move the entire page's contents
D. To adjust the size of a gap between two or more objects
Answer: C and B

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NO.3 Which of the following is not included in the Graphics file formats InDesign imports?
A. Photoshop
B. Flash
C. Illustrator
D. InDesign
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which of the following formats should line art be saved for creating graphics files?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PNG
B. EPS
C. PDF
D. EMF
Answer: B, C, and D

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NO.5 Which of the following are properties of a path? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Fill
B. Empty
C. Contents
D. Closure
Answer: D, A, and C

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NO.6 Which of the following commands will you use to open discretionary hyphen?
A. Layout > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
B. Window > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
C. Object > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
D. Type > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following features allows you to change the shape of an object in an
InDesign document?
A. Pathfinder panel
B. Preflight panel C.
Stroke panel
D. Swatches panel
Answer: A

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