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Code d'Examen: ISEB-SWT2
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?
a. Testing can show the presence of defects.
b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d Answer: A

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NO.3 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? A. Every
development activity has a corresponding test activity.
b. Testers review development documents early.
c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.
e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
Answer: D

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NO.6 When in the lifecycle should testing activities start?
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a. Stubs may be used.
b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c. Tests the interactions between software components.
d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true. a and e are false
B. a is true. b, c, d and e are false
C. c, d and e are true. a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true. c and e are false
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of
female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No? 06 Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the
following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no?
Answer: B

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NO.14 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.15 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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Dernières ISEB FCGIT de la pratique de l'examen questions et réponses téléchargement gratuit

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Code d'Examen: FCGIT
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 You are monitoring energy usage in the data centre. Which of the following techniques can you use?
a) Data aggregating.
b) Thermal profiling.
c) CPU throttling.
d) Server metering.
A. a and c only.
B. b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. a and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following must be measured when calculating the annual energy consumption of a
server?
A. How long the server takes to shut down and reboot.
B. The amount of times the system is upgrading in a year.
C. The energy consumed in different modes of operation.
D. The operating temperature of the server during peak loads.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The Carbon Footprint comprises of both direct and indirect emissions.
Which of the following is an indirect emission?
A. Travelling to the office.
B. Opening a spreadsheet.
C. Disposing of a server.
D. Printing out a report.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In which units are the results of a Carbon Footprint Calculation displayed?
A. Dollars.
B. Kilowatts.
C. Tonnes.
D. Litres.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is the greatest business challenge facing data centres?
A. The shortened technology refresh cycles of suppliers.
B. The cost of next generation blade servers.
C. The ability to manage all data centres centrally.
D. The increase in data storage requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which document should be created to ensure the implementation of your Green IT policy?
A. The green development plan.
B. The green procurement policy.
C. The green IT action plan.
D. The green building plan.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.19 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What should be achieved when setting the scope of an organisation's Green IT Policy.?
A. A definition of what goals are required for the project.
B. A definition of what resources are required for the project.
C. A definition of what people are required for the project.
D. A definition of what activities are required for the project.
Answer: A

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ISC meilleur examen CAP, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CAP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CAP – Certified Authorization Professional)
Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

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NO.1 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

ISC   certification CAP   CAP   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.2 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.3 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.4 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

ISC   CAP   CAP examen   CAP examen   CAP   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.5 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.6 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

ISC   CAP   certification CAP   CAP
Topic 1, Volume A

NO.8 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

NO.9 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

ISC   CAP   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.10 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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Dernières IBM 000-641 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-641
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational robot)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

000-641 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-641.html

NO.1 Given: You have minimized the Robot main window during recording and you are using the
default keyboard mappings. Which of the following procedures will bring the Robot main window
back to the foreground? (Select all that apply.)
A.Press F5 .
B.Click Robot on the Windows taskbar.
C.Click Open Robot Window on the GUI Record toolbar.
D.Use the hot key combination CTRL+SHIFT+F .
Correct:B C D

certification IBM   000-641   000-641   000-641

NO.2 What aspect of the By Location identification method is used with an Object Data verification
point?
A.Screen and pixel coordinate locations
B.User-defined DLL locations
C.Columns and Rows By Locations
D.Value and Key By Locations
Correct:C

certification IBM   000-641   000-641   000-641

NO.3 Verification points can be renamed after the script is recorded.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

certification IBM   000-641   000-641   000-641

NO.4 What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type?
A.To compare the properties of a window; e.g. normal, minimized, maximized, or hidden
B.To capture and compare properties of standard Windows objects
C.To compare the properties of the application; e.g. control location, menu options, etc.
D.To test data in Windows objects that contain text; for example, pushbuttons and labels
Correct:B

certification IBM   000-641   000-641   000-641

NO.5 How can a synchronization failure between the test script and the application be corrected?
(Select all that apply.)
A.Use external data files.
B.Use a wait state.
C.Adjust delays between commands.
D.View data with the Comparators.
E.Customize test log messages.
Correct:B C

certification IBM   000-641   000-641   000-641

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Code d'Examen: 000-417
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

000-417 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-417.html

NO.1 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

certification IBM   000-417   000-417 examen   certification 000-417

NO.2 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

IBM   000-417   certification 000-417

NO.3 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

IBM   000-417   000-417   000-417

NO.4 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417   certification 000-417   000-417   000-417

NO.5 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   000-417   000-417

NO.6 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

IBM   000-417   000-417 examen

NO.7 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   certification 000-417   000-417

NO.8 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

IBM   000-417   certification 000-417

NO.9 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.10 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

IBM examen   000-417   000-417   certification 000-417

NO.11 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   certification 000-417

NO.12 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen

NO.13 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

IBM   certification 000-417   certification 000-417   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen

NO.14 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

IBM   000-417   000-417   000-417

NO.15 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417 examen

NO.16 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

IBM   000-417   000-417   000-417   certification 000-417

NO.17 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-417   000-417   000-417 examen

NO.18 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.19 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.20 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

IBM   certification 000-417   certification 000-417

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Code d'Examen: 000-253
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V6.1, Core Administration)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

000-253 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-253.html

NO.1 What is needed to load balance the HTTP traffic across a cluster of Web servers?
A. Configure a proxy server such as Tivoli Access Manager (TAM)
B. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the WebSphere Edge
D. Use an IP sprayer from the load balancing component of the WebSphere Edge Components
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-253   certification 000-253   000-253 examen

NO.2 A J2EE application needs to be configured as follows: The EJB module and the utility JAR in the
application must be loaded by the same Class loader. Web module WAR1 and the EJB module must use
the same Class loader and Web module WAR2 must have its own Class loader. What is the correct Web
module Class loader configuration for this application?
A. WAR1 -Module, WAR2 -Module
B. WAR1 - Module, WAR2 - Application
C. WAR1 - Application, WAR2 - Application
D. WAR1 - Application, WAR2
Module
Answer: D

IBM   000-253   000-253   000-253

NO.3 An application server is using data source connections being managed thru connection pooling.
However, the server is logging database errors resulting from lack of connections. In this context, what
applies to tuning database connections?
A. Data sources are abstracted from the JDBC drivers to permit database upgrades without impacting the
application logic. The administrator should decrease the connection timeout value.
B. The connection pool is managed by the application server container, so in addition to increasing the
connection setting, additional connections allowed must be configured on the database.
C. The data sources are released at the end of the commit phase when using Type 4 JDBC drivers. New
connections will be created upon the next database access.
D. It is necessary to tune the applications before tuning WebSphere application server. Connections not
returned to the pool are often caused by programs not closing connections properly.
Answer: D

IBM   000-253   000-253 examen   certification 000-253

NO.4 Which services are implemented by the WebSphere application server?
A. Security, JMS messaging, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
B. The user registry, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
C. HTTP Load Balancing service, JMS messaging and Data Replication Service (DRS)
D. Security, Naming, Transaction and Dynamic Cache
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-253 examen   000-253   000-253 examen

NO.5 An application has 15 concurrent users and a connection pool size of 10. Each user uses 3 prepared
statements. For this application, what is the recommended prepared statement cache size?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-253   000-253   000-253

NO.6 When altering the level of logging information, which level provides more detailed logging information
thanthe default (info) level?
A. Fatal
B. Warning
C. Severe
D. Config
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-253   certification 000-253   000-253

NO.7 Which Web module parameter adjustments would result in improved response time for Web clients?
A. Disable load on startup
B. Enable pre-compile JSP option
C. Set the distributable flag
D. Set the reload interval to 20 seconds or less
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-253   certification 000-253

NO.8 When the application server is experiencing normal to heavy usage, which statement most accurately
describes optimal pool usage?
A. The pools will all show similar numerical values, indicating balanced workload is occurring throughout
the application server.
B. Pools used by the application should be released and rebuilt in conjunction with JVM garbage
collection cycles ensuring that no stale connections persist.
C. The Performance Management Interface (PMI) must be explicitly enabled on the application server to
be monitored, since it requires CPU resources on the server being monitored.
D. Pools used by the application should be nearly fully utilized, indicating that resources are being
efficiently used.
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-253   000-253 examen   000-253 examen

NO.9 If an administrator configures session management for an application server to use SSL ID tracking,
which two other session tracking mechanisms should also be enabled?
A. Cookies
B. URL Rewriting
C. Security Integration
D. Serial Access
E. Java2 Security
Answer:AB

IBM   000-253 examen   000-253   certification 000-253   000-253

NO.10 Which approach should be recommended when designing a production topology for WebSphere
application servers providing high availability and failover capabilities?
A. Create a design using multiple machines that handle the full production load, enabling the use of
application server clustering to provide failover capabilities
B. Utilize load balancers between the Web servers and the application servers to provide failover support
at the application server tier
C. Place the Authentication servers outside of the intrusion firewall with the Web servers, since the Web
servers will need to access them
D. Use the largest processor engines and least number of physical machines for the application server
tier, to minimize the software licensing costs
Answer:A

IBM   000-253   000-253   000-253

NO.11 Which set of parameters can a system administrator adjust to directly improve performance for the
EJB container?
A. Transaction lifetime and client inactivity timeout
B. Cache size and cache cleanup interval
C. Data source connection pool and server JVM size
D. Session timeout and HTTP session object size
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-253 examen   000-253 examen   000-253 examen

NO.12 What functionality does the Caching Proxy server provide?
A. Reverse proxy and content-based routing
B. Dynamic content caching and integration with servlet caching
C. File serving enabler
D. HTTP compression
E. Integration with Dynacache and third party object caches
Answer:AB

IBM   000-253   000-253   000-253   000-253 examen

NO.13 What does a WebSphere application server provide to support the installation and deployment of JSR
168 compliant portlets?
A. An embedded portlet container
B. A scaled-down version of the WebSphere Portal Server
C. Several J2EE applications that render and aggregate portlets in a browser
D. An embedded version of WebSphere Portal Express
Answer:A

IBM   certification 000-253   000-253   000-253 examen

NO.14 What is the correct syntax when running the backup configuration of administrative server files when
WebSphere Security is enabled?
A. backupConfig WebSphereConfig user <name> -password <password>
B. backupConfig WebSphereConfig backup.zip nohalt user <name> -password <password>
C. backupConfig WebSphereConfig -cell user <name> -password <password>
D. backupConfig WebSphereConfig profilename=AppSrv01 user <name> -password <password>
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-253   000-253   certification 000-253   000-253 examen

NO.15 Which two components provide workload management capabilities?
A. Node agent
B. Web server plug-in
C. Caching proxy
D. Deployment manager
E. Load balancer
Answer: BE

IBM   000-253   certification 000-253   000-253 examen   000-253 examen

NO.16 A cluster member has suddenly crashed. The administrator is concerned about aborted transactions
holding locks in the database. What can an administrator do to release the locks?
A. Unmount the shared file system such as a Network Attached Storage (NAS) where the transaction log
is stored
B. Restart the deployment manager and node agents who manage the transaction log
C. Verify another running cluster member has access to the transaction log
D. Reconnect the database where the transaction log is stored
Answer: C

IBM   000-253   000-253 examen

NO.17 Which Web server plug-in setting is NOT configurable using the administrative console?
A. Load balancing option
B. Retry interval
C. Refresh configuration interval
D. Minimum number of connections
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-253   000-253

NO.18 Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servlets are packaged in which type of archive file?
A. SAR
B. WAR
C. JAR
D. EJB-JAR
E. SIP-JAR
Answer:A

IBM   certification 000-253   000-253   000-253   certification 000-253   000-253

NO.19 When configuring a J2C connection factory, which setting can be configured using the administrative
console?
A. Container-managed authentication alias
B. Component-managed authentication alias
C. Authentication preference
D. Mapping configuration alias
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-253 examen   000-253
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NO.20 In a WebSphere cell configuration, which component is a single point of failure?
A. Deployment manager
B. Web container
C. EJB container
D. HTTP server
Answer:A

IBM   000-253   000-253 examen   000-253

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Dernières IBM 000-834 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-834
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Object Oriented Analysis and Design-Part2(Design))
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 When identifying interfaces during the Identify Design Elements activity, which statement is true?
A. Classes should not realize an interface.
B. Each subsystem realizes only one interface.
C. Interfaces should be identified before subsystems are created.
D. Interfaces should be packaged separately from the elements that realize them.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which process document describes design mechanisms, any mappings between design mechanisms,
and the details regarding their use?
A. Software Architecture Document
B. Design Guidelines
C. Vision Document
D. Software Development Plan
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is an input artifact to the Identify Design Elements activity?
A. Deployment Model
B. Implementation Model
C. Reference Architecture
D. Software Architecture Document
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the relationship between operation and method?
A. The terms are synonymous.
B. An operation describes how a method is implemented.
C. A method describes how an operation is implemented.
D. There is no relationship.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify Design Elements is part of which workflow detail?
A. Define a Candidate Architecture
B. Design Components
C. Perform Architectural
D. Refine the Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.6 When identifying design elements, a simple analysis class will map to a(n)_____.
A. active class
B. interface
C. design class
D. subsystem
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-834   certification 000-834   000-834

NO.7 Which task is performed during use-case realization refinement?
A. identify participating classes
B. allocate responsibilities among classes
C. model messages between classes
D. model associated class relationships
Answer: D

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NO.8 A design mechanism _____.
A. captures the key aspects of a solution in a way that is implementation-independent
B. specifies the exact implementation of the mechanism and is bound to a certain technology,
implementation language, or vendor
C. is the same as a design pattern
D. assumes some details of the implementation environment, but is not tied to a specific implementation
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the state of a state machine, a behavior can be defined _____.
A. before reaching a state
B. upon reaching a state
C. upon leaving a state
D. inside a state
Answer: BCD

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NO.10 Which type of mechanism is a connector on a deployment diagram?
A. backup
B. communication
C. transaction
D. computation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Why would you use subsystem interfaces rather than subsystem instances on sequence diagrams?
A. to make it easier to model subsystems during Subsystem Design
B. to make use-case realizations easier to change
C. to ease sequence diagram maintenance when message signatures change
D. to reduce the number of classes needed to implement the subsystem
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a gate?
A. a parameter that represents a message that crosses the boundary of an interaction or interaction
fragment
B. a defined protocol for accessing the internals of a subsystem
C. a decision point in a state machine that has more than two alternatives
D. a set of checkpoints each subsystem design must satisfy before it can be assigned for implementation
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is an important consideration when allocating processes to nodes?
A. minimizing network traffic
B. minimizing power consumption
C. utilizing all available nodes
D. physical distance between nodes
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true about design subsystems?
A. They partially encapsulate behavior.
B. They represent an independent capability with clear interfaces.
C. They model a single implementation variant.
D. They can only contain design classes.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are the two types of dependency that can be used from a subsystem? (Choose two.)
A. <<uses>> dependency to a subsystem interface
B. an <<import>> dependency to a package containing used classes
C. a <<manifest>> relationship to a node in the Deployment model
D. a <<realize>> relationship to one or more collaboration occurrences
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Given the following configuration: Package A, which contains class aClass is in the presentation layer.
Package B, which contains a class bClass and an interface bInterface is in the business layer. Package C,
which contains cClass is in the data layer. Which is a poor practice?
A. aClass calls a method in bClass.
B. aClass has an attribute of type cClass.
C. aClass realizes bInterface.
D. bClass realizes bInterface.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statement is true about elements within the subsystem and public visibility?
A. Only the subset of elements that define the subsystems API should have public visibility.
B. Only the subsystem proxy class should have public visibility.
C. No elements inside the subsystem should have public visibility.
D. Only the elements that reference external classes should have public visibility.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click on the exhibit button In the diagram, what is H?
A. fork
B. initial state
C. decision
D. transition
E. final state
F. event
G. state
H. guard condition
Answer: A

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NO.19 Click on the exhibit button In the diagram, what is E?
A. fork
B. initial state
C. decision
D. transition
E. final state
F. event
G. state
H. guard condition
Answer: H

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NO.20 In which OOAD activity is the distribution mechanism identified?
A. Identify Design Elements
B. Identify Design Mechanisms
C. Class Design
D. Architectural Analysis
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-255
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Dev.wwIBM Rational appdev-Websphere software v6)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 What should be done to prevent the Server Selection dialog box from activating when a
developer runs an Enterprise Application from its context menu?
A.Select the "Set server as project default" option from the Server Selection wizard.
B.Select the "Do not prompt" option in the Servers view.
C.Create a new server and select the "Set server as workspace default" option in the Server Creation
wizard.
D.Add the project to the server from the server's context menu.
Correct:A

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NO.2 A developer wants to import a zip file into a project without expanding the contents of the file.
The Developer should use which of the following File -> Import features?
A.File System
B.Zip file
C.Resource file
D.J2EE Jar file
Correct:A

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NO.3 A developer customizes the Java perspective and wants to save the changes as the default
perspective that is opened in the workspace. Which of the following actions would be BEST for
the developer to perform?
A.Choose Window -> Save Perspective As and name the new perspective MyJava; Choose Window ->
Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select MyJava and click Make Default.
B.Choose Window -> Save Perspective; Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives,
select Java and click Make Default.
C.Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select Java and click Make Default.
D.Choose Window -> Perspective -> Save Current As Default.
Correct:A

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NO.4 What can a developer do to allow quick access to a particular Help page?
A.In the main menu, click Help -> Bookmark to bring up a list of Help topics, browse to the desired page,
and click Add.
B.In the main menu, click Favorites -> Manage Favorites, and select the desired page from the list of Help
topics.
C.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click the Bookmark Document icon in the toolbar.
D.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click Favorites -> Add to Favorites from the menu.
Correct:C

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NO.5 An Enterprise Application project contains multiple Dynamic Web projects. All of the Web
projects use a set of common classes defined in a Java project. The common classes are still
under development and are changing daily. What is the BEST way to make the common classes
available to the Web projects at runtime?
A.Add the Java project as a Web Library Project in each of the WARs.
B.Add the Java project as a Project Utility JAR in the EAR and create a Java JAR Dependency in each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
C.Export the Java project as a JAR file and import it into the WebContent/WEB-INF/lib folder of each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
D.Export the classes of the Java project and import the individual class files into the
WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder of each of the Dynamic Web projects.
Correct:B

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NO.6 Datasources created in the Application Deployment Descriptor editor can be accessed by:
A.Applications running on the server.
B.Applications in the current workspace.
C.Modules contained in the EAR file where the definition is made.
D.J2EE Application client modules accessing the server.
Correct:C

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NO.7 A developer has imported a new EAR file into a workspace. What is the result of selecting the
Enterprise Application and choosing Run -> Run on Server from its context menu?
A.The Server Selection dialog box is activated.
B.The "Add and remove projects" dialog is activated.
C.The Server Creation wizard is activated.
D.The Enterprise Application runs on the workspace default server.
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes perspectives within Rational Application Developer?
A.A perspective is a collection of views that facilitate a particular development role.
B.A perspective can be customized with different editors, depending on the needs of the developer.
C.Perspectives can contain other perspectives.
D.Perspectives are opened as a result of launching external applications.
Correct:A

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NO.9 In which TWO of the following locations can the context root of a Dynamic Web project be
changed?
A.The Modules page of the Application Deployment Descriptor editor
B.The XML source of the application.xml file
C.From the J2EE dialog of the Properties of the Dynamic Web project
D.The source of the web.xml file
Correct:B C

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NO.10 A developer wishes to create a project that contains a mix of HTML files, JSP files, servlets, and
Java classes. Which option should the developer choose in the New Project wizard?
A.Dynamic Web Project
B.Static Web Project
C.Java Project
D.Server Project
Correct:A

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NO.11 A developer has a partially complete Web application at the C:\root\webApplication directory. In
order to continue development in Rational Application Developer, what could the developer do?
A.Open a new workspace at C:\root\webApplication.
B.Open a new workspace at C:\root, and create a new Web project called webApplication.
C.From any workspace, create a new Web project, setting the context root to C:\root\webApplication.
D.From any workspace, create a new Web project, and selectively import the files from
C:\root\webApplication.
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which TWO of the following views allow a developer to see Struts resources organized by their
Struts-specific types?
A.Project Explorer
B.Java Browsing
C.Struts Gallery
D.Struts Explorer
E.Modules
Correct:A D

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NO.13 Which TWO of the following can be configured from the Servlets page of the Web Deployment
Descriptor?
A.Filters
B.URL Mappings
C.Initialization parameters
D.Invoker Attributes
Correct:B C

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NO.14 A developer is creating a Struts enabled application using the Web Diagram editor. The
resources in the editor that are gray and do not have bold label text are:
A.Private.
B.External.
C.Unrealized.
D.Interfaces.
Correct:C

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NO.15 A standalone Java application creates a log file without specifying a path name. The log file will
be created in:
A.The product installation directory.
B.The bin subdirectory under the product installation directory.
C.The root directory of the project.
D.The package folder in which the main Java class is located.
Correct:C

IBM examen   000-255   certification 000-255   000-255 examen   certification 000-255

NO.16 What steps MUST be performed to add a Web project to a server?
A.Right-click on the Web project and select Add to Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
B.Right-click on an Enterprise Application project that contains the Web application and select Add to
Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
C.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select the Web
project from the Available projects list and click Add.
D.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select an Enterprise
Application project that contains the Web application from the Available projects list and click Add.
Correct:D

IBM examen   000-255   certification 000-255   000-255 examen   certification 000-255

NO.17 Which of the following operations CANNOT be performed via the Insert Custom Tag dialog
when editing a JSP in Page Designer?
A.Import a tag library into the Web project.
B.Add a taglib descriptor to the JSP.
C.Add a tag to the JSP.
D.Add a custom JSP tag to the JSP.
Correct:C

IBM examen   000-255   certification 000-255   000-255 examen   certification 000-255

NO.18 A company is designing a Web application. Which TWO of the following technologies provide a
model-view-controller framework?
A.Struts
B.Servlet
C.JSTL
D.JSF
E.SDO
Correct:A D

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NO.19 When a developer creates a servlet using the Servlet wizard, what is the purpose of the servlet
name?
A.It is required to be used as the servlet class name.
B.It is used in the default URL mapping.
C.It is used to create an interface to the servlet.
D.It is used for filter mapping.
Correct:B

IBM examen   000-255   certification 000-255   000-255 examen   certification 000-255

NO.20 Which of the following is NOT supported by Page Designer?
A.ASP
B.HTML
C.JSP
D.JavaScript
Correct:A

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